Find all School-related info fast with the new School-Specific MBA Forum

 It is currently 23 Aug 2016, 19:13

### GMAT Club Daily Prep

#### Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

# Events & Promotions

###### Events & Promotions in June
Open Detailed Calendar

# M04#03

Author Message
Intern
Joined: 17 Dec 2008
Posts: 2
Followers: 0

Kudos [?]: 0 [0], given: 0

### Show Tags

22 Dec 2008, 19:19
If $$m$$ and $$n$$ are two consecutive positive integers, is $$m \gt n$$ ?

1. $$m-1$$ and $$n+1$$ are consecutive positive integers
2. $$m$$ is an even integer

[Reveal] Spoiler: OA
A

Source: GMAT Club Tests - hardest GMAT questions

I am not able to understand S1. if m and n are consecutive +ve integers, how can m-1 and n+1 be consecutive +ve integers?

The explanation just says "S1 holds only when m=n+1 . It is sufficient." - couldnt make sense out of it.

can someone help?
Intern
Joined: 30 Mar 2007
Posts: 47
Followers: 0

Kudos [?]: 54 [2] , given: 0

### Show Tags

22 Dec 2008, 21:30
2
KUDOS
m and n are two consecutive positive integers. Is m > n ?
1. m-1 and n+1 are consecutive positive integers
2. m is an even integer

I am not able to understand S1. if m and n are consecutive +ve integers, how can m-1 and n+1 be consecutive +ve integers?

The explanation just says "S1 holds only when m=n+1 . It is sufficient." - couldnt make sense out of it.

can someone help?

Given : m and n are consecutive integers
Now there are two possibilities only. Obviously you cant make out because
m>n or n>m

Take any 2 numbers for first possibility where m=n+1. So no.s here we have are n and n+1
with S1=> m-1= n+1-1=n -----(1)
n+1= n+1---(2)
1 and 2 are consecutive from first possibility. This means if you know that m+1 and n-1 are consecutive, then you know that m and n were also consecutive, with m>n.

But say, if they are not, which will happen in case of another possibility, then this cant be deducted. If we go to another possibility and do same analysis we wont find this true. I have given that also below, however not needed.
With another possibility, m=n-1 also. we have n-1 and n.
Now S1=> m-1= n-1-1= n-2----(1)
n+1 n+1----(2)
Intern
Joined: 07 Sep 2010
Posts: 17
Followers: 0

Kudos [?]: 4 [1] , given: 8

### Show Tags

09 Nov 2010, 07:28
1
KUDOS
Another way, plugging numbers,
Case m < n: m = 3, n = 4
m - 1 = 2, n + 1 = 5, 2 and 5 are not consecutive.
Case m > n: m = 4, n = 3
m - 1 = 3, n + 1 = 4, 3 and 4 are consecutive.

hence, m > n. A is suff.

B gives no info about n. So, insuff.

HTH
--
Aman
Intern
Joined: 13 Oct 2010
Posts: 25
Followers: 1

Kudos [?]: 8 [0], given: 3

### Show Tags

09 Nov 2010, 11:23
This is simple. A is the answer.
Manager
Status: I rest, I rust.
Joined: 04 Oct 2010
Posts: 122
Schools: ISB - Co 2013
WE 1: IT Professional since 2006
Followers: 17

Kudos [?]: 117 [3] , given: 9

### Show Tags

13 Nov 2010, 00:23
3
KUDOS
If $$m$$ and $$n$$ are two consecutive positive integers, is $$m \gt n$$ ?

1. $$m-1$$ and $$n+1$$ are consecutive positive integers
2. $$m$$ is an even integer

[Reveal] Spoiler: OA
A

Source: GMAT Club Tests - hardest GMAT questions

I am not able to understand S1. if m and n are consecutive +ve integers, how can m-1 and n+1 be consecutive +ve integers?

The explanation just says "S1 holds only when m=n+1 . It is sufficient." - couldnt make sense out of it.

can someone help?

Absolute difference between two consecutive integres (positive or negetive) must always be equal to 1

Using 1:
|(m-1)-(n+1)|=1
|m-n-2|=1
m-n-2=1 OR m-n-2=-1

m-n-2=1 => m-n=3 => m=n+3 => Not possible since 'm' and 'n' are consecutive integers.
OR
m-n-2=-1 => m-n=1 => m=n+1 => m>n
SUFFICIENT

Using 2:
'm' is even so 'n' could either be 'm+1' or 'm-1'
NOT SUFFICIENT

A: 1 alone is sufficient.
_________________

Respect,
Vaibhav

PS: Correct me if I am wrong.

Manager
Joined: 27 Apr 2010
Posts: 122
Followers: 0

Kudos [?]: 60 [0], given: 61

### Show Tags

11 Nov 2011, 08:17
A.

M= n +/- 1

Plug in either n+1 or n-1 in first statement

Posted from my mobile device
Manager
Joined: 21 Nov 2010
Posts: 133
Followers: 0

Kudos [?]: 5 [0], given: 12

### Show Tags

13 Nov 2011, 16:44
I plugged in an even positive number, an odd number and and a negative number for m and saw what options I can get for N with both being consecutive numbers. 2 was irrelevant. Answer is A.
Math Expert
Joined: 02 Sep 2009
Posts: 34393
Followers: 6245

Kudos [?]: 79312 [0], given: 10016

### Show Tags

13 Nov 2012, 06:39
If $$m$$ and $$n$$ are two consecutive positive integers, is $$m \gt n$$ ?

1. $$m-1$$ and $$n+1$$ are consecutive positive integers
2. $$m$$ is an even integer

[Reveal] Spoiler: OA
A

Source: GMAT Club Tests - hardest GMAT questions

I am not able to understand S1. if m and n are consecutive +ve integers, how can m-1 and n+1 be consecutive +ve integers?

The explanation just says "S1 holds only when m=n+1 . It is sufficient." - couldnt make sense out of it.

can someone help?

If m and n are consecutive positive integers, is m greater than n?

(1) m-1 and n+1 are consecutive positive integers --> if m were less than n than m-1 (integer less than m) and n+1 (integer more than n) wouldn't be consecutive, so m is greater than n. Sufficient.

Or look at this in another way: stem says that the distance between m and n is 1. Now, if m<n then the distance between m-1 and n+1 would be 3 and they couldn't be consecutive as (1) states. Thus it must be true that m>n.

(2) m is an even integer. Clearly insufficient.

_________________
VP
Status: Been a long time guys...
Joined: 03 Feb 2011
Posts: 1420
Location: United States (NY)
Concentration: Finance, Marketing
GPA: 3.75
Followers: 170

Kudos [?]: 1169 [1] , given: 62

### Show Tags

13 Nov 2012, 07:20
1
KUDOS
Given m and n are consecutive integers. Therefore either m>n or n>m.
Statement 1) m-1 and n+1 are consecutive integers.
Two cases are possible:-
i)
If (n+1)>(m-1)
Then m-1+1=n+1
or m-1=n THAT is OK.
BUT
If (n+1)<(m-1)
Then m-1-1=n+1
m-2=n+1
m-n=3
Hence the difference between the two numbers is not equal to 1. It means the two numbers are not consecutive.
Therefore only first case is valid.
Statement 2) Insufficient
_________________
Re: M04#03   [#permalink] 13 Nov 2012, 07:20
Display posts from previous: Sort by

# M04#03

Moderator: Bunuel

 Powered by phpBB © phpBB Group and phpBB SEO Kindly note that the GMAT® test is a registered trademark of the Graduate Management Admission Council®, and this site has neither been reviewed nor endorsed by GMAC®.