Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.
Customized for You
we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History
Track Your Progress
every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance
Practice Pays
we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History
Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.
It appears that you are browsing the GMAT Club forum unregistered!
Signing up is free, quick, and confidential.
Join other 500,000 members and get the full benefits of GMAT Club
Registration gives you:
Tests
Take 11 tests and quizzes from GMAT Club and leading GMAT prep companies such as Manhattan GMAT,
Knewton, and others. All are free for GMAT Club members.
Applicant Stats
View detailed applicant stats such as GPA, GMAT score, work experience, location, application
status, and more
Books/Downloads
Download thousands of study notes,
question collections, GMAT Club’s
Grammar and Math books.
All are free!
Thank you for using the timer!
We noticed you are actually not timing your practice. Click the START button first next time you use the timer.
There are many benefits to timing your practice, including:
Would someone please explain this problem to me? Thank you.
Set \(T\) consists of all points \((x, y)\) such that \(x^2 + y^2 = 1\) . If point \((a, b)\) is selected from set \(T\) at random, what is the probability that \(b \gt a + 1\) ?
Answer states that b> a+1 is in the upper left quartile because b=a + 1 (y=X+1) covers ponts -1,0 and 0,1, therefore b> a + 1 needs to be above that.
I understand it slightly but I'm not understanding the whole picture. The line b=a+1 that crosses pts -1,0 and 0,1 also is in lower left quartile and upper right quartile so why can't b>a+1 also be in those quartiles above the line?
take both y=x+1 and the circle x^2+y^2=1 line is touching the circle in IInd quadrant only while passing from III rd to Ist Quadrant.
dczuchta wrote:
Would someone please explain this problem to me? Thank you.
Set T consists of all points (x,y) such that x^2 + y^2= 1. If point (a,b) is selected from set T at random, what is the probability that b> a+1 ?
answer: 1/4. Answer states that b> a+1 is in the upper left quartile because b=a + 1 (y=X+1) covers ponts -1,0 and 0,1, therefore b> a + 1 needs to be above that.
I understand it slightly but I'm not understanding the whole picture. The line b=a+1 that crosses pts -1,0 and 0,1 also is in lower left quartile and upper right quartile so why can't b>a+1 also be in those quartiles above the line?
Now I understand after reading your answer then looking back at the test answer. The line crosses over the circle and connects with it at two points, cutting off the top left side of the circle which includes all the points of T in which b>a+1.
From b>1+a we get b-a>1. then (b-a)^2>1, b^2+a^2-2ab>1: since b^2+a^2=1 we get 1-2ab>1 or ab<0. Therefore b and a must be of different sign and because b cannot be negative all such points of the circumference belong to the second quadrant (excluding x-and-y intercepts). Answer is A.
If |a| = 1, a can be equal to 1 then b = 2 and a^2+b^2 > 1 -1<=a<=0, since then b^2+a^2 will be equal to 1 and would still lie in the circle.
The proposed solution of ab<0 where b cannot be negative is most appropriate.
Why b cannot be negative is can be illustrated with an example, if b is -0.1 then a would be -1.1 since a+1=b => a = b-1 and a^2+b^2 does not lie inside the circle. I do not understand the explanation where y=x+1 is treated as a line since the line is cutting the circle in the 2nd quadrant and it doesn't clearly tell about the points below or above the line as the points of interest. _________________
Now I understand after reading your answer then looking back at the test answer. The line crosses over the circle and connects with it at two points, cutting off the top left side of the circle which includes all the points of T in which b>a+1.
These do not account for 1\4 of the points of the circle. Could you elaborate? _________________
Would someone please explain this problem to me? Thank you.
Set \(T\) consists of all points \((x, y)\) such that \(x^2 + y^2 = 1\) . If point \((a, b)\) is selected from set \(T\) at random, what is the probability that \(b \gt a + 1\) ?
The circle represented by the equation \(x^2+y^2 = 1\) is centered at the origin and has the radius of \(r=\sqrt{1}=1\) (for more on this check Coordinate Geometry chapter of math book: math-coordinate-geometry-87652.html ).
So, set T is the circle itself (red curve).
Question is: if point (a,b) is selected from set T at random, what is the probability that b>a+1? All points (a,b) which satisfy this condition (belong to T and have y-coordinate > x-coordinate + 1) lie above the line y=x+1 (blue line). You can see that portion of the circle which is above the line is 1/4 of the whole circumference, hence P=1/4.
Answer: A.
If it were: set T consists of all points (x,y) such that \(x^2+y^2<1\) (so set T consists of all points inside the circle). If point (a,b) is selected from set T at random, what is the probability that b>a+1?
Then as the area of the segment of the circle which is above the line is \(\frac{\pi{r^2}}{4}-\frac{r^2}{2}=\frac{\pi-2}{4}\) so \(P=\frac{area_{segment}}{area_{circle}}=\frac{\frac{\pi-2}{4}}{\pi{r^2}}=\frac{\pi-2}{4\pi}\).
total points lie inside the circle with radius =1. when divided into 4 quadrants, the points (a,b) would lie in 3rd quadrant, as given the condition that b-a>1, for this value of b needs to be positive and value of a should be negative , accordingly this set lies in quad 3rd, so all the points in this quadrant satisfies the condition and total sample is 4 quadrants so the probability = 1/4 ( Ans)
Great problem. I got it wrong as 1/2. I deduced that a is negative which left me with two quadrants worth of points. But failed to consider the line theory.
I did an estimation. X and Y both have the same numbers that can go into either. If you plug in 1 for x (or y), the other variable is 0. Therefore, adding 1 to any variable will make the probability that the other number is above 1 + variable very unlikely.
Wonderful explaination Bunuel....I took area into consideration but I was wrong, I should have taken circumference into consideration... +1 Kudos.. _________________