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NUMBER THEORY • For GMAT it's good to memorize following values: \(\sqrt{2}\approx{1.41}\) \(\sqrt{3}\approx{1.73}\) \(\sqrt{5}\approx{2.24}\) \(\sqrt{7}\approx{2.45}\) \(\sqrt{8}\approx{2.65}\) \(\sqrt{10}\approx{2.83}\)

Anyone else notice that these are wrong? They should be: • For GMAT it's good to memorize following values: \(\sqrt{2}\approx{1.41}\) \(\sqrt{3}\approx{1.73}\) \(\sqrt{5}\approx{2.24}\) \(\sqrt{6}\approx{2.45}\) \(\sqrt{7}\approx{2.65}\) \(\sqrt{8}\approx{2.83}\) \(\sqrt{10}\approx{3.16}\)

Thanks. Edited. +1 for spotting this.
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Example: A company received $2 million in royalties on the first $10 million in sales and then $8 million in royalties on the next $100 million in sales. By what percent did the ratio of royalties to sales decrease from the first $10 million in sales to the next $100 million in sales?

Solution: Percent decrease can be calculated by the formula above: \(Percent=\frac{Change}{Original}*100=\frac{\frac{2}{10}-\frac{10}{100}}{\frac{2}{10}}*100=50%\), so the royalties decreased by 50%.

I could not get this , i think there is some error... Plzz explain..

as the same Q in Percent Part of Math book is giving an answer of 60 %..

Last edited by sag on 10 Jun 2010, 21:15, edited 1 time in total.

Example: A company received $2 million in royalties on the first $10 million in sales and then $8 million in royalties on the next $100 million in sales. By what percent did the ratio of royalties to sales decrease from the first $10 million in sales to the next $100 million in sales?

Solution: Percent decrease can be calculated by the formula above: Percent=\frac{Change}{Original}*100=\frac{\frac{2}{10}-\frac{10}{100}}{\frac{2}{10}}*100=50%, so the royalties decreased by 50%.

I could not get this , i think there is some error... Plzz explain..

as the same Q in Percent Part of Math book is giving an answer of 60 %..

There was a typo. I edited it in Percent section and forgot to edit it here. Now it's OK. Thanks. +1 for spotting this.
_________________

Example: A company received $2 million in royalties on the first $10 million in sales and then $8 million in royalties on the next $100 million in sales. By what percent did the ratio of royalties to sales decrease from the first $10 million in sales to the next $100 million in sales?

Solution: Percent decrease can be calculated by the formula above: Percent=\frac{Change}{Original}*100=\frac{\frac{2}{10}-\frac{10}{100}}{\frac{2}{10}}*100=50%, so the royalties decreased by 50%.

I could not get this , i think there is some error... Plzz explain..

as the same Q in Percent Part of Math book is giving an answer of 60 %..

2 million royalties on 10 million in sales is equivalent to 20 million royalties on 100 million sales (multiply both number by 10). Going down from 20 million royalties to 8 million royalties is a decrease of 60%.

If a is a factor of bc, and gcd(a,b)=1, then a is a factor of c.

Can anyone please explain this rule??? I'm not sure what it means by gcd(a,b)=1.

Thanks a bunch and great summary !!!!!

\(gcd(a,b)=1\) means that greatest common divisor of \(a\) and \(b\) is 1, or in other words they are co-prime, the don't share any common factor but 1. So if we are told that \(a\) is a factor of \(bc\) and \(a\) and \(b\) don't share any common factors, then it must be true that \(a\) is a factor of only \(c\).

So if \(a=3\), \(b=5\) (\(a\) and \(b\) don't share any common factors but 1, \(gcd(a,b)=1\)), \(c=6\) \(bc=30\) --> \(a=3\) is a factor of \(c=6\).
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Thank you so much for compiling this! I have a few questions on the reasoning behind the rules... Sorry for the very long post.

Why is:

Perfect Square • The sum of distinct factors of a perfect square is ALWAYS ODD. • A perfect square ALWAYS has an ODD number of Odd-factors, and EVEN number of Even-factors. • Perfect square always has even number of powers of prime factors.

Consecutive Integers • The product of n consecutive integers is always divisible by n!. Given n=4 consecutive integers: \{3,4,5,6\}. The product of 3*4*5*6 is 360, which is divisible by 4!=24.

Evenly Spaced • If the first term is a_1 and the common difference of successive members is d, then the n_{th} term of the sequence is given by: a_ n=a_1+d(n-1)

Terminating Decimal Why must the denominator be 2^n5^m?

Exponents Why are: a^n-b^n is ALWAYS divisible by a-b. a^n + b^n is divisible by a+b if n is odd, and not divisible by a+b if n is even.

Thanks! It was very very helpful! Kudos! But I have a question:

How many powers of 900 are in 50!

Make the prime factorization of the number: \(900=2^2*3^2*5^2\), then find the powers of these prime numbers in the n!.

Find the power of 2: \(\frac{50}{2}+\frac{50}{4}+\frac{50}{8}+\frac{50}{16}+\frac{50}{32}=25+12+6+3+1=47\)

= \(2^{47}\)

Find the power of 3: \(\frac{50}{3}+\frac{50}{9}+\frac{50}{27}=16+5+1=22\)

=\(3^{22}\)

Find the power of 5: \(\frac{50}{5}+\frac{50}{25}=10+2=12\)

=\(5^{12}\)

We need all the prime {2,3,5} to be represented twice in 900, 5 can provide us with only 6 pairs, thus there is 900 in the power of 6 in 50!.

Why do we take just 5 from {2,3,5} and why do we need divide 12 by 2 to get the result?

Thanks in advance!

\(50!=900^xa=(2^2*3^2*5^2)^x*a\), where \(x\) is the highest possible value of 900 and \(a\) is the product of other multiples of \(50!\).

\(50!=2^{47}*3^{22}*5^{12}*b=(2^2*3^2*5^2)^6*(2^{35}*3^{10})*b=900^{6}*(2^{35}*3^{10})*b\), where \(b\) is the product of other multiples of \(50!\). So \(x=6\).

Below is another example:

Suppose we have the number \(18!\) and we are asked to to determine the power of \(12\) in this number. Which means to determine the highest value of \(x\) in \(18!=12^x*a\), where \(a\) is the product of other multiples of \(18!\).

\(12=2^2*3\), so we should calculate how many 2-s and 3-s are in \(18!\).

Calculating 2-s: \(\frac{18}{2}+\frac{18}{2^2}+\frac{18}{2^3}+\frac{18}{2^4}=9+4+2+1=16\). So the power of \(2\) (the highest power) in prime factorization of \(18!\) is \(16\).

Calculating 3-s: \(\frac{18}{3}+\frac{18}{3^2}=6+2=8\). So the power of \(3\) (the highest power) in prime factorization of \(18!\) is \(8\).

Now as \(12=2^2*3\) we need twice as many 2-s as 3-s. \(18!=2^{16}*3^8*a=(2^2)^8*3^8*a=(2^2*3)^8*a=12^8*a\). So \(18!=12^8*a\) --> \(x=8\).

Does this relationship breakdown at some point? I thought this was great and was just experimenting and looked at 21! (calculated in excel) and it ends with 5 zeros. Using the methodology you described above it should have 4 zeros. Am I missing something or did I make a mistake somewhere?

Does this relationship breakdown at some point? I thought this was great and was just experimenting and looked at 21! (calculated in excel) and it ends with 5 zeros. Using the methodology you described above it should have 4 zeros. Am I missing something or did I make a mistake somewhere?

You made everything right 21! ends with 21/5=4 zeros. It's excel: it makes rounding with such a huge numbers thus giving incorrect result.
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