Medieval Arabs had manuscripts of many ancient Greek texts, : GMAT Critical Reasoning (CR)
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# Medieval Arabs had manuscripts of many ancient Greek texts,

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02 Dec 2005, 05:33
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Medieval Arabs had manuscripts of many ancient Greek texts, which were translated into Arabic when there was a demand for them. Medieval Arab philosophers were very interested in Aristotleâ€™s Poetics, an interest that evidently was not shared by Medieval Arab poets, because a poet interested in the Poetics would certainly have wanted to read Homer, to whose epics Aristotle frequently refers. But Homer was not translated into Arabic until modern times.

Which one of the following, if true, most strongly supports the argument above?
(A) A number of medieval Arab translators possessed manuscripts of the Homeric epics in their original Greek.
(B) Medieval Arabic story cycles, such as the Arabian Nights, are in some ways similar to parts of the Homeric epics.
(C) In addition to translating from Greek, medieval Arab translators produced Arabic editions of many works originally written in Indian languages and in Persian.
(D) Aristotleâ€™s Poetics has frequently been cited and commented on by modern Arab poets.
(E) Aristotleâ€™s Poetics is largely concerned with drama, and dramatic works were written and performed by medieval Arabs
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02 Dec 2005, 06:53
Looks like (A). Because the translators possessed the manuscripts in the original Greek, there obviously was no demand to translate them into Arabic (at the time.)
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02 Dec 2005, 18:04
imo should be E , because they were of dramatics which the arabs used.
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03 Dec 2005, 02:35
I would choose D here. Since Aristotle refers to Homeric epics, Arab poets are interested when Aristotle mentions them. so they are cited and commented by modern Arab poets.
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03 Dec 2005, 03:02
i got A as well.
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03 Dec 2005, 03:40
B for me. If correct I will explain. This question is really difficult. Where is this question from?
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03 Dec 2005, 07:03
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A)...what would undermine the arg ? evidence that would show that the arabs had many greek texts, but no the texts of homer. so the author cannot conclude that the arabs had no interest in the texts of homer. thats the reason why A) supports the arg ! because among the greek texts were indeed the texts of homer !
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03 Dec 2005, 08:34

In addition to translating from Greek, medieval Arab translators produced Arabic editions of many works originally written in Indian languages and in Persian. --> Arab poets had the ability to translate Greek to Arabian. But But Homer was not translated into Arabic until modern times --> they did not interest in Homer.: the conclusion
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04 Dec 2005, 14:38
OA is A.
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11 Jun 2014, 02:30
Hello from the GMAT Club VerbalBot!

Thanks to another GMAT Club member, I have just discovered this valuable topic, yet it had no discussion for over a year. I am now bumping it up - doing my job. I think you may find it valuable (esp those replies with Kudos).

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12 Jun 2014, 11:03
I think B and not A because

1. According to A Since medieval Arabs had greek copy then they should have translated the homer. so Weakening the statement.
2. According to B since Arabic Nights was similar to Homer they didn't translated until recently. so strengthening the argument.

Please correct me where am i going wrong.

Thanks.
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12 Jun 2014, 22:40
Answer is A. If the poets were interested then it would definitely be translated as the original version was available. But that wasn't the case, hence it supports the argument.

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Re: Medieval Arabs had manuscripts of many ancient Greek texts,   [#permalink] 12 Jun 2014, 22:40
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