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Ms. Barton has four children. You are told correctly that sh [#permalink]

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15 Mar 2011, 22:44

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Ms. Barton has four children. You are told correctly that she has at least two girls but you are not told which two of her four children are those girls. What is the probability that she also has two boys? (Assume that the probability of having a boy is the same as the probability of having a girl.)

Assume that there are 4 Ms. Barton's children in a row: 1-2-3-4. Let show all possible combinations of them being girl(G) or boy(B) giving that there at least two girls. We are seeing each child 1,2,3,4 a s a unique(so, we distinguish between them) BBGG BGBG GBBG BGGB GBGB GGBB BGGG GBGG GGBG GGGB GGGG

Overall 11 variants. 6 of them satisfy the condition of 2 boys exactly (they are highlighted in bold) Therefore the probability is 6/11 _________________

If my post is useful for you not be ashamed to KUDO me! Let kudo each other!

Ms. Barton has four children. You are told correctly that she has at least two girls but you are not told which two of her four children are those girls. What is the probability that she also has two boys? (Assume that the probability of having a boy is the same as the probability of having a girl.)

(A) 1/4 (B) 3/8 (C) 5/11 (D) 1/2 (E) 6/11

Let me try a general approach without resorting to actually listing all possibilities (which may not be possible if we need to do similar problem for say exactly 3 out of 6 or 4 out of 8 etc.)

number of ways in which there can be two boys and two girls out of 4 children = 4!/((2!)*(2!)) = 6

Number of ways in which there will be atleast 2 girls out of 4 children = ways for 2 boys and 2 girls (6 as calculated above) + ways for 3 girls and 1 boy (=4!/3! = 4)+ways for 1 all girls (=1), so total of 11 ways.

You need to determine the number of favourable arrangements (i.e. arrangements for which # girls = 2) out of all possible arrangements (i.e. arrangements for which # girls >= 2)

# arrangements for 2 girls and 2 boys (favourable arrangement) = 4! / (2!*2!) = 6 # arrangements for 3 girls and 1 boy = 4! / (3!*1!) = 4 # arrangements for 4 girls and 0 boys = 4! / 4! = 1

I like it too, and can be simplified even further.

There are normally 2*2*2*2=16 combinations.

We are told it is not 4B0G, and not 3B1G. It is clear that these are 1 combination, and 4 combinations (the G could be in either of 4 spots) respectively. So 16-5=11 combinations remain.

Since it is symmetric (p(g)=p(b)=0.5), there are also 5 combinations of 4G0B/3G1B, leaving 6/11.

p.s. Dont know if this is better, I never learnt all the equations with the '!' in them and when to use each, and so I always solve these intuitively.

Suddenly, something comes to my mind so awfully, but I couldn't disprove why I am wrong. Could someone help me in this.

I suddenly see it as : P(2 girls, 2 boys) = 1/2*1/2*1/2*1/2 = 1/16.(since each has a prob of 1/2).

Pls disprove me.... I don see where I am wrong, but I know surely I am.

Thanks

The following is the complete explanation for this question:

You need to find Probability of 2 boys and 2 girls given there are at least 2 girls. This is a conditional probability. You have already been given that there are at least 2 girls. You need to find the probability of 2 boys and 2 girls given this condition. P(A given B) = P(A)/P(B)

P(2 boys, 2 girls) = (1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2) * 4!/(2!*2!) = 3/8 You multiply by 4!/(2!*2!) because out of the four children, any 2 could be boys and the other two would be girls. So you have to account for all arrangements: BGBG, BBGG, BGGB etc

In the above given solutions, all the (1/2)s have been ignored because the probability of a boy is 1/2 and of a girl is 1/2 too. Hence in every case you will get (1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2) which can be ignored. We just need to focus on arrangements in each case. This is similar to the famous coin flipping questions (the probability of 3 Heads and a tail etc) (check out Binomial Probability in Veritas Combinatorics book for an explanation) _________________

Suddenly, something comes to my mind so awfully, but I couldn't disprove why I am wrong. Could someone help me in this.

I suddenly see it as : P(2 girls, 2 boys) = 1/2*1/2*1/2*1/2 = 1/16.(since each has a prob of 1/2).

Pls disprove me.... I don see where I am wrong, but I know surely I am.

Thanks

The following is the complete explanation for this question:

You need to find Probability of 2 boys and 2 girls given there are at least 2 girls. This is a conditional probability. You have already been given that there are at least 2 girls. You need to find the probability of 2 boys and 2 girls given this condition. P(A given B) = P(A)/P(B)

P(2 boys, 2 girls) = (1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2) * 4!/(2!*2!) = 3/8 You multiply by 4!/(2!*2!) because out of the four children, any 2 could be boys and the other two would be girls. So you have to account for all arrangements: BGBG, BBGG, BGGB etc

In the above given solutions, all the (1/2)s have been ignored because the probability of a boy is 1/2 and of a girl is 1/2 too. Hence in every case you will get (1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2) which can be ignored. We just need to focus on arrangements in each case. This is similar to the famous coin flipping questions (the probability of 3 Heads and a tail etc) (check out Binomial Probability in Veritas Combinatorics book for an explanation)

Thanks VeritasPrepKarisma, for simplifying it so much. Kudos for the details!

Re: Ms. Barton has four children. You are told correctly that sh [#permalink]

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23 Oct 2013, 17:30

Hello from the GMAT Club BumpBot!

Thanks to another GMAT Club member, I have just discovered this valuable topic, yet it had no discussion for over a year. I am now bumping it up - doing my job. I think you may find it valuable (esp those replies with Kudos).

Want to see all other topics I dig out? Follow me (click follow button on profile). You will receive a summary of all topics I bump in your profile area as well as via email. _________________

Suddenly, something comes to my mind so awfully, but I couldn't disprove why I am wrong. Could someone help me in this.

I suddenly see it as : P(2 girls, 2 boys) = 1/2*1/2*1/2*1/2 = 1/16.(since each has a prob of 1/2).

Pls disprove me.... I don see where I am wrong, but I know surely I am.

Thanks

The following is the complete explanation for this question:

You need to find Probability of 2 boys and 2 girls given there are at least 2 girls. This is a conditional probability. You have already been given that there are at least 2 girls. You need to find the probability of 2 boys and 2 girls given this condition. P(A given B) = P(A)/P(B)

P(2 boys, 2 girls) = (1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2) * 4!/(2!*2!) = 3/8 You multiply by 4!/(2!*2!) because out of the four children, any 2 could be boys and the other two would be girls. So you have to account for all arrangements: BGBG, BBGG, BGGB etc

In the above given solutions, all the (1/2)s have been ignored because the probability of a boy is 1/2 and of a girl is 1/2 too. Hence in every case you will get (1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2) which can be ignored. We just need to focus on arrangements in each case. This is similar to the famous coin flipping questions (the probability of 3 Heads and a tail etc) (check out Binomial Probability in Veritas Combinatorics book for an explanation)

Hi Karishma I have two questions. 1. when calculating 2 boys and 2 girls, given that there are two girls, why do we multiply 4!/2!2! with (1/2)^4? We already know that two are girls, so shouldn't we multiply only by (1/2)^2? 2. When considering the overall, why do we divide (1) by p(at least two girls)? Why don't we divide it by all available options?

Re: Ms. Barton has four children. You are told correctly that sh [#permalink]

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04 Dec 2013, 20:00

What am I missing here?

The questions clearly states that 2 of the 4 kids are girls. It also clearly asks "what is the probability that the other 2 are boys?"

This gives us a P of 1/2 that a child will be a boy and 1/2 that the child will be a girl. Armed with the fact that having two girls will have no significance on the sex of the other two children, we can treat this as mutually exclusive scenario.

So there is P:1/2 that one of the remaining children is a boy, and P:1/2 that the other child is also a boy. Therefore, the probability would become 1/4.

The questions clearly states that 2 of the 4 kids are girls. It also clearly asks "what is the probability that the other 2 are boys?"

This gives us a P of 1/2 that a child will be a boy and 1/2 that the child will be a girl. Armed with the fact that having two girls will have no significance on the sex of the other two children, we can treat this as mutually exclusive scenario.

So there is P:1/2 that one of the remaining children is a boy, and P:1/2 that the other child is also a boy. Therefore, the probability would become 1/4.

Am I reading this question wrong?

We are concerned about the 4 selections together, not the individual selection. What this means is that if your logic is correct, the probability of having 4 girls would be the same as the probability of having 2 girls and 2 boys. But is that correct? No it is not.

In how many ways can you have 4 girls? (1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2) = 1/16 (First child girl,next girl, next girl, next girl)

In how many ways can you have 2 girls and 2 boys? (1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2) = 1/16 (First child girl,next girl, next boy, next boy) (1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2) = 1/16 (First child girl,next boy, next girl, next boy) (1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2) = 1/16 (First child girl,next boy, next boy, next girl) and so on...

There is a sequence to obtaining kids and that needs to be factored in. Many ways will lead to 2 girls and 2 boys hence the probability of obtaining 2 girls and 2 boys will be higher than the probability of obtaining 4 girls. The question clearly tells us that we don't know which 2 are girls so we cannot say that this the case where first child and second child are girls and others are boys. Hence you need to follow the method discussed above: ms-barton-has-four-children-you-are-told-correctly-that-sh-110962.html?sid=9797da5586e03fc5fd356ef7e6808458#p991399

It is similar to the coin flipping case. Every coin flip is independent of the other but the probability of obtaining 4 heads in 4 flips is less than the probability of obtaining 2 heads and 2 tails. _________________

Re: Ms. Barton has four children. You are told correctly that sh [#permalink]

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04 Jul 2014, 23:40

Favourable outcome = 2G2B = 4!/2!2! = 6 Total outcomes(We have to modify the total outcomes as it is given that there are atleast 2 girls, so we are not considering the case of having 4B, 3B1G) = 2G2B + 3G1B + 4G = (4!/2!2!) + (4!/3!1!) + (4!/4!) = 6+4+1 = 11

Re: Ms. Barton has four children. You are told correctly that sh [#permalink]

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09 Sep 2014, 12:38

VeritasPrepKarishma wrote:

raghupara wrote:

Hi people,

Suddenly, something comes to my mind so awfully, but I couldn't disprove why I am wrong. Could someone help me in this.

I suddenly see it as : P(2 girls, 2 boys) = 1/2*1/2*1/2*1/2 = 1/16.(since each has a prob of 1/2).

Pls disprove me.... I don see where I am wrong, but I know surely I am.

Thanks

The following is the complete explanation for this question:

You need to find Probability of 2 boys and 2 girls given there are at least 2 girls. This is a conditional probability. You have already been given that there are at least 2 girls. You need to find the probability of 2 boys and 2 girls given this condition. P(A given B) = P(A)/P(B)

P(2 boys, 2 girls) = (1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2) * 4!/(2!*2!) = 3/8 You multiply by 4!/(2!*2!) because out of the four children, any 2 could be boys and the other two would be girls. So you have to account for all arrangements: BGBG, BBGG, BGGB etc

In the above given solutions, all the (1/2)s have been ignored because the probability of a boy is 1/2 and of a girl is 1/2 too. Hence in every case you will get (1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2) which can be ignored. We just need to focus on arrangements in each case. This is similar to the famous coin flipping questions (the probability of 3 Heads and a tail etc) (check out Binomial Probability in Veritas Combinatorics book for an explanation)

Hi Karishma, Perhaps you missed my previous question. I don't understand why when calculating the odds of calculating 2 boys and 2 girls, you multiply by (1/2)^4. We are already told that 2 girls are given... So why not multiply just by the odds of the rest being boys, which is (1/2)^2?

Suddenly, something comes to my mind so awfully, but I couldn't disprove why I am wrong. Could someone help me in this.

I suddenly see it as : P(2 girls, 2 boys) = 1/2*1/2*1/2*1/2 = 1/16.(since each has a prob of 1/2).

Pls disprove me.... I don see where I am wrong, but I know surely I am.

Thanks

The following is the complete explanation for this question:

You need to find Probability of 2 boys and 2 girls given there are at least 2 girls. This is a conditional probability. You have already been given that there are at least 2 girls. You need to find the probability of 2 boys and 2 girls given this condition. P(A given B) = P(A)/P(B)

P(2 boys, 2 girls) = (1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2) * 4!/(2!*2!) = 3/8 You multiply by 4!/(2!*2!) because out of the four children, any 2 could be boys and the other two would be girls. So you have to account for all arrangements: BGBG, BBGG, BGGB etc

In the above given solutions, all the (1/2)s have been ignored because the probability of a boy is 1/2 and of a girl is 1/2 too. Hence in every case you will get (1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2) which can be ignored. We just need to focus on arrangements in each case. This is similar to the famous coin flipping questions (the probability of 3 Heads and a tail etc) (check out Binomial Probability in Veritas Combinatorics book for an explanation)

Hi Karishma, Perhaps you missed my previous question. I don't understand why when calculating the odds of calculating 2 boys and 2 girls, you multiply by (1/2)^4. We are already told that 2 girls are given... So why not multiply just by the odds of the rest being boys, which is (1/2)^2?

Probability of A given B = P(A) (out of all possible cases)/P(B) (out of all possible cases)

B will be a subset of all possible cases and A will be a subset of B. When you calculate P(A), you assume all possible cases and then divide by P(B) because the only range you have to consider is P(B). Since P(B) is less than 1 usually, Probability of A given B is usually more than P(A). _________________

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