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OG, 13th ed, CR 104

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OG, 13th ed, CR 104 [#permalink] New post 11 Nov 2013, 13:56
Hello, could you please explain a doubt I have in the following question?


Theater Critic: The play La Finestrina, now at Central Theater, was written in Italy in the eighteenth century. The
director claims that this production is as similar to the original production as is possible in a modern theater.
Although the actor who plays Harlequin the clown gives a performance very reminiscent of the twentieth-century
American comedian Groucho Marx, Marx’s comic style was very much within the comic acting tradition that had
begun in sixteenth-century Italy.
The considerations given best serve as part of an argument that
(A) modern audiences would fi nd it hard to tolerate certain characteristics of a historically accurate
performance of an eighteenth-century play
(B) Groucho Marx once performed the part of the character Harlequin in La Finestrina
(C) in the United States the training of actors in the twentieth century is based on principles that do not differ
radically from those that underlay the training of actors in eighteenth-century Italy
(D) the performance of the actor who plays Harlequin in La Finestrina does not serve as evidence against the
director’s claim
(E) the director of La Finestrina must have advised the actor who plays Harlequin to model his performance on
comic performances of Groucho Marx

DOUBT:
I understand that the actor who performed the harlequin has a similar style to Marx’s performance.

Marx, who has a similar style to the 16th tradition in Italy.

However I do not see why answer D in correct I think the actor who performs the harlequin is actually against of the director’s claim since the argument states that the original production of the Finestrina was written in 18th and Marx performed in the 16th century. This option might be true, if we were sure that the 16th tradition was followed int eh 18th century, but the statement does not say anything about that. I would understand if the answer would say “ The performance of the actor who plays Harlequin in La Finestrina MIGHT NOT SERVE as a evidence against the director’s claim. However the answer says “DOES NOT SERVE” as it were for sure that in the 18th the 16th tradition was followed

I saw the solution in the explanation in the private forum of E-gmat, but I do not see the explanation for my doubt.

Thank you,

Alexis
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Re: OG, 13th ed, CR 104 [#permalink] New post 11 Nov 2013, 21:29
Expert's post
Alexisvargas10 wrote:
Hello, could you please explain a doubt I have in the following question?


Theater Critic: The play La Finestrina, now at Central Theater, was written in Italy in the eighteenth century. The
director claims that this production is as similar to the original production as is possible in a modern theater.
Although the actor who plays Harlequin the clown gives a performance very reminiscent of the twentieth-century
American comedian Groucho Marx, Marx’s comic style was very much within the comic acting tradition that had
begun in sixteenth-century Italy.
The considerations given best serve as part of an argument that
(A) modern audiences would fi nd it hard to tolerate certain characteristics of a historically accurate
performance of an eighteenth-century play
(B) Groucho Marx once performed the part of the character Harlequin in La Finestrina
(C) in the United States the training of actors in the twentieth century is based on principles that do not differ
radically from those that underlay the training of actors in eighteenth-century Italy
(D) the performance of the actor who plays Harlequin in La Finestrina does not serve as evidence against the
director’s claim
(E) the director of La Finestrina must have advised the actor who plays Harlequin to model his performance on
comic performances of Groucho Marx

DOUBT:
I understand that the actor who performed the harlequin has a similar style to Marx’s performance.

Marx, who has a similar style to the 16th tradition in Italy.

However I do not see why answer D in correct I think the actor who performs the harlequin is actually against of the director’s claim since the argument states that the original production of the Finestrina was written in 18th and Marx performed in the 16th century. This option might be true, if we were sure that the 16th tradition was followed int eh 18th century, but the statement does not say anything about that. I would understand if the answer would say “ The performance of the actor who plays Harlequin in La Finestrina MIGHT NOT SERVE as a evidence against the director’s claim. However the answer says “DOES NOT SERVE” as it were for sure that in the 18th the 16th tradition was followed

I saw the solution in the explanation in the private forum of E-gmat, but I do not see the explanation for my doubt.

Thank you,

Alexis


It is an inference/conclusion question. The gist of the question is: what is the author trying to say by giving you this information? What can you infer/conclude from the given argument?

Argument:
The play La Finestrina was written in Italy in the eighteenth century.
The director claims that this production is as similar to the original production (18th century production).
Although the actor who plays Harlequin gives a performance very reminiscent of the twentieth-century comedian Groucho Marx, Marx’s comic style had begun in sixteenth-century Italy.
(So basically, Harlequin's performance reminds one of Marx's style but Marx's used a style that had originated in the 16th century. So Harlequin's performance is old style)

Which of the following can we conclude:

(A) modern audiences would fi nd it hard to tolerate certain characteristics of a historically accurate performance of an eighteenth-century play
No such info available. The argument says that it may not be possible to replicate the play exactly but why, we do not know. Is it because of the technology or actors or audience, we cannot say.

(B) Groucho Marx once performed the part of the character Harlequin in La Finestrina
No such info given

(C) in the United States the training of actors in the twentieth century is based on principles that do not differ radically from those that underlay the training of actors in eighteenth-century Italy
The argument only talks about one particular 20th century actor, Marx, not about actors in general. So we cannot say this.

(D) the performance of the actor who plays Harlequin in La Finestrina does not serve as evidence against the director’s claim
The director claims that his production is similar to the original 18th century production. Even though the performance of the guy who plays Harlequin reminds us of Marx, the 20th century comedian, his style was old school. Hence, the guy's style was old school. So his performance is not evidence against the director's claim. True. Note here that the distinction is between old style and modern style - not between older and old. Also, you may feel that this is not optimum but it is certainly best of the 5 options. Hence this is the answer.

(E) the director of La Finestrina must have advised the actor who plays Harlequin to model his performance on comic performances of Groucho Marx
We don't know who told the actor to model his performance on Marx or whether he did it on his own or whether his style is actually similar to Marx's. We certainly cannot infer from anything given that the director advised the actor to model Marx. In fact, if the director wanted to advise the actor to model his performance on someone else's, we would have guessed that he would have asked him to model it on the performance of the guy who played the comic character in the original production instead of on the performance of Marx, a 20th century comic. Anyway, its besides the point because the argument gives no info on this matter. Hence this is not correct.
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Re: OG, 13th ed, CR 104 [#permalink] New post 14 Nov 2013, 00:37
Expert's post
Alexisvargas10 wrote:
Hello, could you please explain a doubt I have in the following question?


Theater Critic: The play La Finestrina, now at Central Theater, was written in Italy in the eighteenth century. The
director claims that this production is as similar to the original production as is possible in a modern theater.
Although the actor who plays Harlequin the clown gives a performance very reminiscent of the twentieth-century
American comedian Groucho Marx, Marx’s comic style was very much within the comic acting tradition that had
begun in sixteenth-century Italy.
The considerations given best serve as part of an argument that
(A) modern audiences would fi nd it hard to tolerate certain characteristics of a historically accurate
performance of an eighteenth-century play
(B) Groucho Marx once performed the part of the character Harlequin in La Finestrina
(C) in the United States the training of actors in the twentieth century is based on principles that do not differ
radically from those that underlay the training of actors in eighteenth-century Italy
(D) the performance of the actor who plays Harlequin in La Finestrina does not serve as evidence against the
director’s claim
(E) the director of La Finestrina must have advised the actor who plays Harlequin to model his performance on
comic performances of Groucho Marx

DOUBT:
I understand that the actor who performed the harlequin has a similar style to Marx’s performance.

Marx, who has a similar style to the 16th tradition in Italy.

However I do not see why answer D in correct I think the actor who performs the harlequin is actually against of the director’s claim since the argument states that the original production of the Finestrina was written in 18th and Marx performed in the 16th century. This option might be true, if we were sure that the 16th tradition was followed int eh 18th century, but the statement does not say anything about that. I would understand if the answer would say “ The performance of the actor who plays Harlequin in La Finestrina MIGHT NOT SERVE as a evidence against the director’s claim. However the answer says “DOES NOT SERVE” as it were for sure that in the 18th the 16th tradition was followed

I saw the solution in the explanation in the private forum of E-gmat, but I do not see the explanation for my doubt.

Thank you,

Alexis

Hi Alexis,

You are perfect in your understanding of the passage and the possible inference from it.

If this were an inference question, I would have heartily agreed to what you said.

However, this is not an inference question. This is a conclusion question. So, while an inference is bound within the boundaries of the passage, a conclusion might not be. It is just like a conclusion in normal argument questions in GMAT CR. Do you think the conclusions in "Assumption, Weaken or Strengthen" questions are actually inferences?

No.

Isn't it?

If the conclusions were inferences, then given that we cannot challenge the premises, we would not be able to weaken the conclusion and there would actually be no assumptions required for the conclusion to hold.

So, conclusions are not same as inferences.

For example: If you are given that Joe scored 200 on GMAT. Then, you can possibly conclude that Joe is not an intelligent guy, but you cannot infer this.

As you can see while making the conclusion about Joe, we are making several assumptions such as "GMAT score is a correct measure of intelligence" and "Joe was not terribly ill during his GMAT, a condition which could have significantly impacted his score".

Now, while these assumptions can be made while drawing conclusions, you cannot make such assumptions while drawing inferences.

So, while option D is not an inference but it is a valid conclusion. (As you said, it requires an assumption that 16th century tradition was followed in 18th century also)

Now, one pertinent question to ask here is: how do we know that this is a conclusion question and not an inference question?

The answer is simple: by reading the question stem carefully.

"The considerations given best serve as part of an argument that"

As you can see, the question is asking you to find "argument" in the option statement. We know that conclusion is chief objective of an argument. So, essentially, we are looking for a conclusion.

If the question stem had been "The considerations given above best supports which of the following statements", then I don't think we can have option D as the correct answer. Because in this case, we are more or less looking for an inference and option D cannot be conclusively inferred from the given passage.

Does it help? :)

Thanks,
Chiranjeev
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Re: OG, 13th ed, CR 104 [#permalink] New post 14 Nov 2013, 07:08
egmat wrote:
Alexisvargas10 wrote:
Hello, could you please explain a doubt I have in the following question?


Theater Critic: The play La Finestrina, now at Central Theater, was written in Italy in the eighteenth century. The
director claims that this production is as similar to the original production as is possible in a modern theater.
Although the actor who plays Harlequin the clown gives a performance very reminiscent of the twentieth-century
American comedian Groucho Marx, Marx’s comic style was very much within the comic acting tradition that had
begun in sixteenth-century Italy.
The considerations given best serve as part of an argument that
(A) modern audiences would fi nd it hard to tolerate certain characteristics of a historically accurate
performance of an eighteenth-century play
(B) Groucho Marx once performed the part of the character Harlequin in La Finestrina
(C) in the United States the training of actors in the twentieth century is based on principles that do not differ
radically from those that underlay the training of actors in eighteenth-century Italy
(D) the performance of the actor who plays Harlequin in La Finestrina does not serve as evidence against the
director’s claim
(E) the director of La Finestrina must have advised the actor who plays Harlequin to model his performance on
comic performances of Groucho Marx

DOUBT:
I understand that the actor who performed the harlequin has a similar style to Marx’s performance.

Marx, who has a similar style to the 16th tradition in Italy.

However I do not see why answer D in correct I think the actor who performs the harlequin is actually against of the director’s claim since the argument states that the original production of the Finestrina was written in 18th and Marx performed in the 16th century. This option might be true, if we were sure that the 16th tradition was followed int eh 18th century, but the statement does not say anything about that. I would understand if the answer would say “ The performance of the actor who plays Harlequin in La Finestrina MIGHT NOT SERVE as a evidence against the director’s claim. However the answer says “DOES NOT SERVE” as it were for sure that in the 18th the 16th tradition was followed

I saw the solution in the explanation in the private forum of E-gmat, but I do not see the explanation for my doubt.

Thank you,

Alexis

Hi Alexis,

You are perfect in your understanding of the passage and the possible inference from it.

If this were an inference question, I would have heartily agreed to what you said.

However, this is not an inference question. This is a conclusion question. So, while an inference is bound within the boundaries of the passage, a conclusion might not be. It is just like a conclusion in normal argument questions in GMAT CR. Do you think the conclusions in "Assumption, Weaken or Strengthen" questions are actually inferences?

No.

Isn't it?

If the conclusions were inferences, then given that we cannot challenge the premises, we would not be able to weaken the conclusion and there would actually be no assumptions required for the conclusion to hold.

So, conclusions are not same as inferences.

For example: If you are given that Joe scored 200 on GMAT. Then, you can possibly conclude that Joe is not an intelligent guy, but you cannot infer this.

As you can see while making the conclusion about Joe, we are making several assumptions such as "GMAT score is a correct measure of intelligence" and "Joe was not terribly ill during his GMAT, a condition which could have significantly impacted his score".

Now, while these assumptions can be made while drawing conclusions, you cannot make such assumptions while drawing inferences.

So, while option D is not an inference but it is a valid conclusion. (As you said, it requires an assumption that 16th century tradition was followed in 18th century also)

Now, one pertinent question to ask here is: how do we know that this is a conclusion question and not an inference question?

The answer is simple: by reading the question stem carefully.

"The considerations given best serve as part of an argument that"

As you can see, the question is asking you to find "argument" in the option statement. We know that conclusion is chief objective of an argument. So, essentially, we are looking for a conclusion.

If the question stem had been "The considerations given above best supports which of the following statements", then I don't think we can have option D as the correct answer. Because in this case, we are more or less looking for an inference and option D cannot be conclusively inferred from the given passage.

Does it help? :)

Thanks,
Chiranjeev


Hello Chiranjeev,

That is a great explanation that I will keep in mind, so the key is understanding the question stem. However, I might have problems understanding the difference in a inference question and conclusion question. Is there some article, or something I can read about it? In the concept about inference questions this is not explained at all. Actually, this question is part of the practice for inference questions suggested in the study plan of the online verbal course. Please let me know

Thank you,

Alexis
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Re: OG, 13th ed, CR 104 [#permalink] New post 14 Nov 2013, 07:36
Expert's post
Alexisvargas10 wrote:
egmat wrote:
Alexisvargas10 wrote:
Hello, could you please explain a doubt I have in the following question?


Theater Critic: The play La Finestrina, now at Central Theater, was written in Italy in the eighteenth century. The
director claims that this production is as similar to the original production as is possible in a modern theater.
Although the actor who plays Harlequin the clown gives a performance very reminiscent of the twentieth-century
American comedian Groucho Marx, Marx’s comic style was very much within the comic acting tradition that had
begun in sixteenth-century Italy.
The considerations given best serve as part of an argument that
(A) modern audiences would fi nd it hard to tolerate certain characteristics of a historically accurate
performance of an eighteenth-century play
(B) Groucho Marx once performed the part of the character Harlequin in La Finestrina
(C) in the United States the training of actors in the twentieth century is based on principles that do not differ
radically from those that underlay the training of actors in eighteenth-century Italy
(D) the performance of the actor who plays Harlequin in La Finestrina does not serve as evidence against the
director’s claim
(E) the director of La Finestrina must have advised the actor who plays Harlequin to model his performance on
comic performances of Groucho Marx

DOUBT:
I understand that the actor who performed the harlequin has a similar style to Marx’s performance.

Marx, who has a similar style to the 16th tradition in Italy.

However I do not see why answer D in correct I think the actor who performs the harlequin is actually against of the director’s claim since the argument states that the original production of the Finestrina was written in 18th and Marx performed in the 16th century. This option might be true, if we were sure that the 16th tradition was followed int eh 18th century, but the statement does not say anything about that. I would understand if the answer would say “ The performance of the actor who plays Harlequin in La Finestrina MIGHT NOT SERVE as a evidence against the director’s claim. However the answer says “DOES NOT SERVE” as it were for sure that in the 18th the 16th tradition was followed

I saw the solution in the explanation in the private forum of E-gmat, but I do not see the explanation for my doubt.

Thank you,

Alexis

Hi Alexis,

You are perfect in your understanding of the passage and the possible inference from it.

If this were an inference question, I would have heartily agreed to what you said.

However, this is not an inference question. This is a conclusion question. So, while an inference is bound within the boundaries of the passage, a conclusion might not be. It is just like a conclusion in normal argument questions in GMAT CR. Do you think the conclusions in "Assumption, Weaken or Strengthen" questions are actually inferences?

No.

Isn't it?

If the conclusions were inferences, then given that we cannot challenge the premises, we would not be able to weaken the conclusion and there would actually be no assumptions required for the conclusion to hold.

So, conclusions are not same as inferences.

For example: If you are given that Joe scored 200 on GMAT. Then, you can possibly conclude that Joe is not an intelligent guy, but you cannot infer this.

As you can see while making the conclusion about Joe, we are making several assumptions such as "GMAT score is a correct measure of intelligence" and "Joe was not terribly ill during his GMAT, a condition which could have significantly impacted his score".

Now, while these assumptions can be made while drawing conclusions, you cannot make such assumptions while drawing inferences.

So, while option D is not an inference but it is a valid conclusion. (As you said, it requires an assumption that 16th century tradition was followed in 18th century also)

Now, one pertinent question to ask here is: how do we know that this is a conclusion question and not an inference question?

The answer is simple: by reading the question stem carefully.

"The considerations given best serve as part of an argument that"

As you can see, the question is asking you to find "argument" in the option statement. We know that conclusion is chief objective of an argument. So, essentially, we are looking for a conclusion.

If the question stem had been "The considerations given above best supports which of the following statements", then I don't think we can have option D as the correct answer. Because in this case, we are more or less looking for an inference and option D cannot be conclusively inferred from the given passage.

Does it help? :)

Thanks,
Chiranjeev


Hello Chiranjeev,

That is a great explanation that I will keep in mind, so the key is understanding the question stem. However, I might have problems understanding the difference in a inference question and conclusion question. Is there some article, or something I can read about it? In the concept about inference questions this is not explained at all. Actually, this question is part of the practice for inference questions suggested in the study plan of the online verbal course. Please let me know

Thank you,

Alexis


Dear Alexis,

We haven't written any article on this aspect. I think it is not very hard to spot the difference between a conclusion and an inference question if you pay attention to the question stem.

Yes, you are correct that this question is part of the practice questions suggested at the end of Inference file. The reason is that the overall approach for both Inference and Conclusion questions remains the same. The difference lies only in the leeway a correct option statement has - in inference, a correct option statement is tightly bound by the passage but not so in a conclusion question.

Just keep in mind whatever you have learnt from this thread. I think this should help you dispel doubts about difference between conclusion and inference questions.

If you still face any issues in any other question, feel free to let me know.

Thanks,
Chiranjeev
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Re: OG, 13th ed, CR 104   [#permalink] 14 Nov 2013, 07:36
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