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One reason why European music has had such a strong

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VP
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One reason why European music has had such a strong [#permalink] New post 02 Mar 2005, 23:07
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One reason why European music has had such a strong influence throughout the world, and why it is a sophisticated achievement, is that over time the original function of the music—whether ritual, dance, or worship—gradually became an aspect of its style, not its defining force. Dance music could stand independent of dance, for example, and sacred music independent of religious worship, because each composition has so much internal coherence that the music ultimately depends on nothing but itself.

The claims made above are compatible with each of the following EXCEPT:

(A) African music has had a more powerful impact on the world than European music has had.
(B) European military and economic expansionism partially explains the global influence of European music.
(C) The original functions of many types of Chinese music are no longer their defining forces.
(D) Music that is unintelligible when it is presented independently of its original function tends to be the most sophisticated music.
(E) Some works of art lose their appeal when they are presented to serve a function other than their original one.
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 [#permalink] New post 03 Mar 2005, 04:49
(A) African music has had a more powerful impact on the world than European music has had. => it is possible => compatible
(B) European military and economic expansionism partially explains the global influence of European music. => it may be another reason beside the one that is mentioned in the claim => compatible
(C) The original functions of many types of Chinese music are no longer their defining forces. => it is mentioned in the claim; the worldwide influence troughout the world => compatible
(D) Music that is unintelligible when it is presented independently of its original function tends to be the most sophisticated music. => i think here is a contratiction between the most sophisticated music and that the music depends only on itself; when it only depends on itself, is it possible to be the most sophisticated music ? i dont think so => incompatible
(E) Some works of art lose their appeal when they are presented to serve a function other than their original one. => it is possible that some works of art loose their appeal for example painting or novel; there is no reference especially to music => compatible

hm? not quite sure ?
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 [#permalink] New post 03 Mar 2005, 17:19
I will pick (E)..

(E)'s analogy is reverse than original statement's.

Last edited by jpv on 03 Mar 2005, 20:43, edited 1 time in total.
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 [#permalink] New post 03 Mar 2005, 18:21
E) definitely disputes what the statement says.
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 [#permalink] New post 05 Mar 2005, 04:42
but E says some works of art not music. The stem just talks about music.
In D there's a contradiction with the stem because the reason why music is a sophisticated achievement is that it became indipendent from its function.

D?
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 [#permalink] New post 06 Mar 2005, 00:33
B --> provides a different reason why European music has had greater influence on the world (not just because of the music...but because of military domination)
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 [#permalink] New post 06 Mar 2005, 02:35
cannot get the spirit.

Any more explicit explanation?

OA?
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 [#permalink] New post 06 Mar 2005, 03:32
should be between "D" and "E"

tend towards "D"
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 [#permalink] New post 06 Mar 2005, 06:17
Conclusion: Music can stand independent over time because they gradually become an aspect of style, and not it defining force.

The claims made above are compatible with each of the following EXCEPT:

(A) African music has had a more powerful impact on the world than European music has had.
- out of scope. Too narrow. (limiting word: african)

(B) European military and economic expansionism partially explains the global influence of European music.
- Provides one other reason why European music has a global impact.

(C) The original functions of many types of Chinese music are no longer their defining forces.
- Out of scope. No mention of chinese music. (limiting word: chinese)

(D) Music that is unintelligible when it is presented independently of its original function tends to be the most sophisticated music.
- Not supported for in passage. Only mention of sophication, is the process European music became a strong influence in the world, and not the type of music itself. And it doesn't counter the claim that it is the transformation of Eurpoean music (emphasis on defining force to style) that caused the global expansion of european music.

(E) Some works of art lose their appeal when they are presented to serve a function other than their original one.
- This is implied in the passage. European music has not lost their appeal. But it's not really important as it does not give a reason why European music has evovled to be a major influence in the world.

I'll pick B. But this is really a strange question, if not difficult one.
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 [#permalink] New post 08 Mar 2005, 00:43
What's the OA.

it seems we need saver.
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Re: CR: European Music [#permalink] New post 08 Mar 2005, 09:32
Compatible means not controdicting.

(A) African music has had a more powerful impact on the world than European music has had.
Not contradicting.

(B) European military and economic expansionism partially explains the global influence of European music.
Not contradicting.

(C) The original functions of many types of Chinese music are no longer their defining forces.
Definitely compatible.

(D) Music that is unintelligible when it is presented independently of its original function tends to be the most sophisticated music.
The word that bugged me is "unintelligible". The passage says the good music can live independent of its original purpose because it is internally coherant and do not need a purpose to live. This choice says the sophisticated music is uncomprehensible when it is presented independently of its function.

(E) Some works of art lose their appeal when they are presented to serve a function other than their original one.
Originally I thought this is contradicting to the passage. In the passage it says European music's influence over the world is due to its original purpose was changed to a style and is not the real function any more. This choice says if the original function was lost then art would lose its appeal. However after reading the previous posts I realize that this choice says "some works of art". It does not contradict that "other works of art" may not lose their appeal.

So I would choose (D).
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 [#permalink] New post 08 Mar 2005, 11:10
It is got to be E) which clearly disagrees with the stem.

MA,
I think this is from the CR bank - LSAT question. How are you doing with these LSAT CRs? I am getting 80-85% hit rate with them and am frustrated.
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 [#permalink] New post 08 Mar 2005, 12:37
C or E....

and after reading the posts........we will see....
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 [#permalink] New post 08 Mar 2005, 12:40
ok, not C,
but I still believe E could be the one....
I although, the reason I didnt choose D, was because I didnt understood it the first time I read it..... :lol:
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 [#permalink] New post 08 Mar 2005, 21:06
nocilis wrote:
It is got to be E) which clearly disagrees with the stem.
MA, I think this is from the CR bank - LSAT question. How are you doing with these LSAT CRs? I am getting 80-85% hit rate with them and am frustrated.


Yes, it is from LSAT. i am not very good in verbal, however math is ok. Verbal is my problem because i am not native english speaker. My sticking rate is also not highly satisfactory. i take too much time to answer the verbal-questions.

sorry guys, i do not have OA. NOCILIS, pls post the OA if you have.

thanx for your concern.
  [#permalink] 08 Mar 2005, 21:06
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