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One reason why European music has had such a strong [#permalink]
28 Sep 2005, 03:51
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One reason why European music has had such a strong influence throughout the world, and why it is a sophisticated achievement, is that over time the original function of the musicâ€”whether ritual, dance, or worshipâ€”gradually became an aspect of its style, not its defining force. Dance music could stand independent of dance, for example, and sacred music independent of religious worship, because each composition has so much internal coherence that the music ultimately depends on nothing but itself.
The claims made above are compatible with each of the following EXCEPT:
(A) African music has had a more powerful impact on the world than European music has had.
(B) European military and economic expansionism partially explains the global influence of European music.
(C) The original functions of many types of Chinese music are no longer their defining forces.
(D) Music that is unintelligible when it is presented independently of its original function tends to be the most sophisticated music.
(E) Some works of art lose their appeal when they are presented to serve a function other than their original one.
Crazyfin, always beware of extraneous information presented in CR answer choices; such info is frequently presented as a trap.
A. No where in the passage is African music introduced or are two music types compared in terms of their impact.
B. The topic of the stimulus is music, not militaries.
C. Same as A, we are not expected to know anything about Chinese music. We are GMAT test takers, not music historians.
D. Dense and tricky, I agree, however well within scope.
E. Art??? Same as B, the topic of the passage is music. Irrelevant.
i agree with you that all options other than D are out of scope, but then re-read the question....it means that A,B,C and E hence, are compatible with the passage. how do u reason this out?
also i still dont understand how D is not compatible with the passage.
please explain all options in the light of "compatibility with the passage"
This was a hard one because both A and C seem to be outside the scope of the passage.
D however, made sense to me because it clearly contradicts the passage.
The passage says that the reason why European music is a sophisticated achievement is because when it stands independently of its original function, it has internal coherence, not that it is unintelligible.