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One reason why European music has had such a strong

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One reason why European music has had such a strong [#permalink] New post 22 Oct 2008, 10:42
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One reason why European music has had such a strong influence throughout the world, and why it is a sophisticated achievement, is that over time the original function of the music—whether ritual, dance, or worship—gradually became an aspect of its style, not its defining force. Dance music could stand independent of dance, for example, and sacred music independent of religious worship, because each composition has so much internal coherence that the music ultimately depends on nothing but itself.

The claims made above are compatible with each of the following EXCEPT:

(A) African music has had a more powerful impact on the world than European music has had.
(B) European military and economic expansionism partially explains the global influence of European music.
(C) The original functions of many types of Chinese music are no longer their defining forces.
(D) Music that is unintelligible when it is presented independently of its original function tends to be the most sophisticated music.
(E) Some works of art lose their appeal when they are presented to serve a function other than their original one.
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Re: CR: Music [#permalink] New post 22 Oct 2008, 11:09
bigtreezl wrote:
One reason why European music has had such a strong influence throughout the world, and why it is a sophisticated achievement, is that over time the original function of the music—whether ritual, dance, or worship—gradually became an aspect of its style, not its defining force. Dance music could stand independent of dance, for example, and sacred music independent of religious worship, because each composition has so much internal coherence that the music ultimately depends on nothing but itself.

The claims made above are compatible with each of the following EXCEPT:

(A) African music has had a more powerful impact on the world than European music has had. Possibly true. Doesn't hurt the above claim
(B) European military and economic expansionism partially explains the global influence of European music. Might be another reason
(C) The original functions of many types of Chinese music are no longer their defining forces. inline with the claim of European music
(D) Music that is unintelligible when it is presented independently of its original function tends to be the most sophisticated music. Inline with the independence claimed
(E) Some works of art lose their appeal when they are presented to serve a function other than their original one.

Who knows, we are talking about music and not some works of art. Probably does not hold good for painting. also we are not talking about swapping functions in the stimulus


Tough one but I felt E.
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Re: CR: Music [#permalink] New post 22 Oct 2008, 11:11
B?
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Re: CR: Music [#permalink] New post 22 Oct 2008, 11:15
I will go with A, since it is a comparision between African and European music, I guess which is not requied, how abt OA
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Re: CR: Music [#permalink] New post 22 Oct 2008, 11:17
bigtreezl wrote:
One reason why European music has had such a strong influence throughout the world, and why it is a sophisticated achievement, is that over time the original function of the music—whether ritual, dance, or worship—gradually became an aspect of its style, not its defining force. Dance music could stand independent of dance, for example, and sacred music independent of religious worship, because each composition has so much internal coherence that the music ultimately depends on nothing but itself.

The claims made above are compatible with each of the following EXCEPT:

(A) African music has had a more powerful impact on the world than European music has had.
(B) European military and economic expansionism partially explains the global influence of European music.
(C) The original functions of many types of Chinese music are no longer their defining forces.
(D) Music that is unintelligible when it is presented independently of its original function tends to be the most sophisticated music.
(E) Some works of art lose their appeal when they are presented to serve a function other than their original one.


This HAS to be an LSAT CR.
I am not able to think through answer choices !

Is it D by any chance ?
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Re: CR: Music [#permalink] New post 22 Oct 2008, 12:27
I went with A, that one made no sense at all.

The passage does not remote compare anything from Africa, so I cannot understand how it can be compatible, unless we make extraordinary and far fetched assumptions.

Knowing my luck though, it'll probably be wrong lol. :roll:
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Re: CR: Music [#permalink] New post 22 Oct 2008, 12:37
E.

Doesn't E directly contradict the argument? That art loses its appeal when its function is hidden/lost?

what is OA??
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Re: CR: Music [#permalink] New post 22 Oct 2008, 12:46
amitdgr wrote:
bigtreezl wrote:
One reason why European music has had such a strong influence throughout the world, and why it is a sophisticated achievement, is that over time the original function of the music—whether ritual, dance, or worship—gradually became an aspect of its style, not its defining force. Dance music could stand independent of dance, for example, and sacred music independent of religious worship, because each composition has so much internal coherence that the music ultimately depends on nothing but itself.

The claims made above are compatible with each of the following EXCEPT:

(A) African music has had a more powerful impact on the world than European music has had.
(B) European military and economic expansionism partially explains the global influence of European music.
(C) The original functions of many types of Chinese music are no longer their defining forces.
(D) Music that is unintelligible when it is presented independently of its original function tends to be the most sophisticated music.
(E) Some works of art lose their appeal when they are presented to serve a function other than their original one.


This HAS to be an LSAT CR.
I am not able to think through answer choices !

Is it D by any chance ?


you must have done something correctly in your thought process..OA is D

how did you come up with D?
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Re: CR: Music [#permalink] New post 22 Oct 2008, 21:42
bigtreezl wrote:
amitdgr wrote:
bigtreezl wrote:
One reason why European music has had such a strong influence throughout the world, and why it is a sophisticated achievement, is that over time the original function of the music—whether ritual, dance, or worship—gradually became an aspect of its style, not its defining force. Dance music could stand independent of dance, for example, and sacred music independent of religious worship, because each composition has so much internal coherence that the music ultimately depends on nothing but itself.

The claims made above are compatible with each of the following EXCEPT:

(A) African music has had a more powerful impact on the world than European music has had.
(B) European military and economic expansionism partially explains the global influence of European music.
(C) The original functions of many types of Chinese music are no longer their defining forces.
(D) Music that is unintelligible when it is presented independently of its original function tends to be the most sophisticated music.
(E) Some works of art lose their appeal when they are presented to serve a function other than their original one.


This HAS to be an LSAT CR.
I am not able to think through answer choices !

Is it D by any chance ?


you must have done something correctly in your thought process..OA is D

how did you come up with D?


The gist of the stimulus is that ... European music today is influential and sophisticated because it can stand independently ... That means independent/sophisticated music is not senseless

Choice D says ... Music that is unintelligible(or senseless) when presented independently is sophisticated ... This is not what the stimulus says ...

I hope it made sense ....
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Re: CR: Music [#permalink] New post 23 Oct 2008, 05:42
Amit, now, tell me how a) is compatible with the claim? :wink
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Re: CR: Music [#permalink] New post 23 Oct 2008, 06:09
bigfernhead wrote:
Amit, now, tell me how a) is compatible with the claim? :wink


I was scratching my head on that from the time I saw A. But I guess, it may/may not be compatible so we are ok with it.

Thank GOD I am not preparing for LSAT.
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Re: CR: Music [#permalink] New post 23 Oct 2008, 06:36
Me either. My gf is studying for it right now. Some of the questions are intense :P
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Re: CR: Music [#permalink] New post 23 Oct 2008, 06:57
bigfernhead wrote:
Me either. My gf is studying for it right now. Some of the questions are intense :P


God bless her ! :shock:
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Re: CR: Music [#permalink] New post 23 Oct 2008, 21:29
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One reason why European music has had such a strong influence throughout the world, and why it is a sophisticated achievement, is that over time the original function of the music—whether ritual, dance, or worship—gradually became an aspect of its style, not its defining force. Dance music could stand independent of dance, for example, and sacred music independent of religious worship, because each composition has so much internal coherence that the music ultimately depends on nothing but itself.

The claims made above are compatible with each of the following EXCEPT:

(A) African music has had a more powerful impact on the world than European music has had.
(B) European military and economic expansionism partially explains the global influence of European music.
(C) The original functions of many types of Chinese music are no longer their defining forces.
(D) Music that is unintelligible when it is presented independently of its original function tends to be the most sophisticated music.
(E) Some works of art lose their appeal when they are presented to serve a function other than their original one.


Here's my take:

(A) is not incompatible. The passage says that European music has had a powerful impact. It's not saying that African music has not had a powerful impact. It is simply giving the reasons the author thinks European music has been as influential as it has been.

(B) The passage gives "one reason" for European music's impact. The fact that there are other reasons for European music's impact does not contradict what the author of the passage tells us.

(C) The author doesn't say that other cultures' music has not transcended the original purpose of the music. What he says pertains to European music only. For those of you choosing (A)...why not (C)? The reasons you are giving are the same. Think about it. If your reason for choosing (A) was because Africa is a different culture than Europe, then how can (C) not also be correct by that reasoning? And since 2 answer choices cannot both be correct, you should be careful that they are not both wrong.

(D) is right. This is going 100% against what the author is saying. The author is saying that the reason European music is so legit is because it has transcended its original purpose and can be understood entirely on its own. Choice (D) is saying that the most legit music is music that can't be understood unless it is in its original context. Complete opposites.

(E) is wrong becuase it acutally strengthens the author's point. If some works of art lose their luster when presented outside of their original context, then the fact that European music can be understood as stand-alone art is certainly impressive.

Cliff Notes:
(A), (B), and (C) are irrelevant to this entire discussion. (D) contradicts the author's point, and (E) strengthens the author's point.
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Re: CR: Music [#permalink] New post 23 Oct 2008, 22:18
JorgeStevenson wrote:
Quote:
One reason why European music has had such a strong influence throughout the world, and why it is a sophisticated achievement, is that over time the original function of the music—whether ritual, dance, or worship—gradually became an aspect of its style, not its defining force. Dance music could stand independent of dance, for example, and sacred music independent of religious worship, because each composition has so much internal coherence that the music ultimately depends on nothing but itself.

The claims made above are compatible with each of the following EXCEPT:

(A) African music has had a more powerful impact on the world than European music has had.
(B) European military and economic expansionism partially explains the global influence of European music.
(C) The original functions of many types of Chinese music are no longer their defining forces.
(D) Music that is unintelligible when it is presented independently of its original function tends to be the most sophisticated music.
(E) Some works of art lose their appeal when they are presented to serve a function other than their original one.


Here's my take:

(A) is not incompatible. The passage says that European music has had a powerful impact. It's not saying that African music has not had a powerful impact. It is simply giving the reasons the author thinks European music has been as influential as it has been.

(B) The passage gives "one reason" for European music's impact. The fact that there are other reasons for European music's impact does not contradict what the author of the passage tells us.

(C) The author doesn't say that other cultures' music has not transcended the original purpose of the music. What he says pertains to European music only. For those of you choosing (A)...why not (C)? The reasons you are giving are the same. Think about it. If your reason for choosing (A) was because Africa is a different culture than Europe, then how can (C) not also be correct by that reasoning? And since 2 answer choices cannot both be correct, you should be careful that they are not both wrong.

(D) is right. This is going 100% against what the author is saying. The author is saying that the reason European music is so legit is because it has transcended its original purpose and can be understood entirely on its own. Choice (D) is saying that the most legit music is music that can't be understood unless it is in its original context. Complete opposites.

(E) is wrong becuase it acutally strengthens the author's point. If some works of art lose their luster when presented outside of their original context, then the fact that European music can be understood as stand-alone art is certainly impressive.

Cliff Notes:
(A), (B), and (C) are irrelevant to this entire discussion. (D) contradicts the author's point, and (E) strengthens the author's point.



good post! +1
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Re: CR: Music [#permalink] New post 24 Oct 2008, 05:42
So there's a difference here between "irrelevance" and "incompatibility"?

I'd would think if it's irrelevant, then it's incompatible...

Very interesting. Thanks for the post.
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Re: CR: Music [#permalink] New post 24 Oct 2008, 12:18
Yeah, by "irrelevant" I meant that it neither refutes nor strengthens the author's point. When they say "incompatible", they want you to choose the statement that refutes what the author was saying.

It's like if I said Clinton Portis is a great runningback because he has excellent patience.

If you say Steven Jackson has even better patience, that's irrelevant because I'm only referring to why Clinton Portis is a great runningback. The fact that Steven Jackson may have better patience than Portis does not refute my point that Clinton Portis is a great runningback.

However, what if you said that runningbacks who are patient wait too long for plays to develop and therefore tend to fail in the NFL? That would refute me because my entire point was that Portis -> Good Patience, Good Patience -> Great Runningback.

Good luck, yall.
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Re: CR: Music [#permalink] New post 24 Oct 2008, 20:04
JorgeStevenson wrote:
Yeah, by "irrelevant" I meant that it neither refutes nor strengthens the author's point. When they say "incompatible", they want you to choose the statement that refutes what the author was saying.

It's like if I said Clinton Portis is a great runningback because he has excellent patience.

If you say Steven Jackson has even better patience, that's irrelevant because I'm only referring to why Clinton Portis is a great runningback. The fact that Steven Jackson may have better patience than Portis does not refute my point that Clinton Portis is a great runningback.

However, what if you said that runningbacks who are patient wait too long for plays to develop and therefore tend to fail in the NFL? That would refute me because my entire point was that Portis -> Good Patience, Good Patience -> Great Runningback.

Good luck, yall.


:) thanks
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Re: CR: Music   [#permalink] 24 Oct 2008, 20:04
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