D for me !!!

Great question and please reveal OA

I'm for A

One reason why European music has had such a strong influence throughout the world, and why it is a sophisticated achievement, is that over time the original function of the music—whether ritual, dance, or worship—gradually became an aspect of its style, not its defining force. Dance music could stand independent of dance, for example, and sacred music independent of religious worship, because each composition has so much internal coherence that the music ultimately depends on nothing but itself.
The claims made above are compatible with each of the following EXCEPT:

Rephrase it: Which of the following is not contrary to the passage.
POE method is particularly effective on 700-level questions b/c the right choice would be so confusing on the verbal part.

A. European music has had such a strong influence throughout the world, but not the strongest
Means that some other continents' music migh have had more powerful effect on the world, and African music might be one of them. How is this answer incompatible with the argument. No how. Eliminate A.

(B) It does not contradict the passage at all. It just partially explains why European music has been so influential.

C. This answer is consitent with the following statement: the original function of the music—whether ritual, dance, or worship—gradually became an aspect of its style, not its defining force.

(E) No problem, the argument does not state that this rule is absolute. There might be some exceptions. This might be one of them.

That leaves D.
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so whats the Original Answer ???
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D
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Seems like an easy (D) to me. The key is that they're asking which choices the claims are COMPATIBLE with - not necessarily that the answers are DEFINITELY true, but that they COULD be true without contradicting the article.

(A) - The article states only that European music has had a large global influence - not that it had the LARGEST influence. African music could have had a larger influence without contradicting the article. Compatible.

(B) - The article states ONE OF the reasons why European music had a large global influence. This could certainly be ANOTHER reason, and it makes sense as one. Compatible.

(C) - The point the article makes is that the original functions of European music are no longer the defining forces - it makes no claim that ONLY European music has this quality. It could certainly be true of other music, like, say, Chinese. Compatible.

(D) - European music is globally influential because it stands alone without needing its original function - in other words, you don't have to include a ritualistic dance to appreciate the music being danced to, because the music is good enough on its own. This option states the exact opposite - the most sophisticated music is unintelligible without its original function, so it CAN'T stand alone. Complete contradiction - incompatible.

(E) - This is a direct inference from the article. If the global influence of European music can partially be attributed to the fact that it can stand alone without its original function, it would make sense that there are works of art which cannot stand alone without their original functions. Compatible.

Tough one. I've chosen A and got wrong. I agreed with the reasoning of 2 guys above. I didn't think about compatible when reasoning the answer choices.
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I pick D. It goes against the reasoning in the premise.

i am still torn between A and D. I understand there is no mention of Africa in the passage. However in D the argument is too strong in mentioning most.

What is the correct answer?
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I chose A.I am still unable to comprehend how is it D,as this argument needs weakening and D is strengthening it!