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One reason why European music has had such a strong

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Re: One reason why European music has had such a strong [#permalink] New post 07 Jan 2012, 05:42
"A" for me
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Re: One reason why European music has had such a strong [#permalink] New post 02 Mar 2012, 07:12
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noboru wrote:
25. One reason why European music has had such a strong influence throughout the world, and why it is a sophisticated achievement, is that over time the original function of the music—whether ritual, dance, or worship—gradually became an aspect of its style, not its defining force. Dance music could stand independent of dance, for example, and sacred music independent of religious worship, because each composition has so much internal coherence that the music ultimately depends on nothing but itself.
The claims made above are compatible with each of the following EXCEPT:
(A) African music has had a more powerful impact on the world than European music has had.
(B) European military and economic expansionism partially explains the global influence of European music.
(C) The original functions of many types of Chinese music are no longer their defining forces.
(D) Music that is unintelligible when it is presented independently of its original function tends to be the most sophisticated music.
(E) Some works of art lose their appeal when they are presented to serve a function other than their original one.


D.

A. Unrelated but not incompatible. could be true.
B. Not incompatible. that may very well be the case.
C. Very compatible.
D. Incompatible. States that the most sophisticated music is that which is unintelligible without it's original context.
E. Close to D but is about works of art rather than music so it is not as incompatible as D which is far more specifically related to music
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Re: One reason why European music has had such a strong [#permalink] New post 02 Mar 2012, 11:28
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Wow, this one is engendered quite a lot of controversy. :-D

There is definitely a clear answer though, which is (D). And that the wrong answers are incorrect is equally clear (at least I hope my explanation makes it seem that way :).)


So let's dissect this monster by asking: What is the core of the argument?

European music is sophisticated because it can stand on its own. That is European music can be divorced from its context (rituals, social functions, etc.) and still make sense.

An answer that would be incompatible with the argument would suggest that

1) European music cannot stand on its own but must be understood in the context of its function
2) A certain kind of music can stand on it's own but is not sophisticated.
3) Music that is sophisticated cannot stand on its own - i.e., it is unintelligible.

1) is too direct and obvious (at least for a 700+ question), and doesn't touch on sophistication. A possible answer choice would be something like:

(F) Most people who are exposed to western music for the first time find it unintelligible

2) mentions sophistication and would more likely be a GMAT answer choice. However, none of the answer choices (A - E) fall into this category. A hypothetical answer that fits into this category is:

(G) African griot music, understood by those who have no idea of the social function of the music, is a simple and unadorned.

3) This is the most subtle of the three. Essentially, we are saying that A = B (sophisticated music is intelligible) and are challenging this with an answer choice that says A does not equal B (sophisticated music is unintelligible). The answer choice that clearly speak to this is answer (D):

(D) Music that is unintelligible when it is presented independently of its original function tends to be the most sophisticated music. ANSWER


(A) African music has had a more powerful impact on the world than European music has had.

The argument says that European music has had a powerful impact. That African music has had the most impact does not undermine the previous statement.

(B) European military and economic expansionism partially explains the global influence of European music.

The prompt begins with the words, [i]one reason why... Thus, it is not saying that European music's global influence has only one cause. [/i]

(C) The original functions of many types of Chinese music are no longer their defining forces.

This answer choice doesn't speak to sophistication, intelligibility or even global influence. It simply states that Chinese music is defined by something different than its original function.

(D) The Answer


(E) Some works of art lose their appeal when they are presented to serve a function other than their original one.

This answer choice would be much stronger if it replaced, Some works with Most European music. In fact, think back to 1) at the beginning of the post. Remember how I said that answer choice is the most obvious one. Well, (E) baits us into thinking that it is the same as 1). But by dropping in 'some works of art' it becomes too broad. Indeed 'some works of art' does not, by definition, include European music. So this answer choice can be said to be out of scope.

Hope that helps :-D
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Re: One reason why European music has had such a strong [#permalink] New post 02 Mar 2012, 14:57
Ah, I was 50-50 between D and E and decided to side with E...thank you for the great explanation! I hate how 1 or 2 subtle words, such as "some" in choice E have such a profound impact on a particular answer choice.
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Re: One reason why European music has had such a strong [#permalink] New post 05 Nov 2013, 09:43
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noboru wrote:
25. One reason why European music has had such a strong influence throughout the world, and why it is a sophisticated achievement, is that over time the original function of the music—whether ritual, dance, or worship—gradually became an aspect of its style, not its defining force. Dance music could stand independent of dance, for example, and sacred music independent of religious worship, because each composition has so much internal coherence that the music ultimately depends on nothing but itself.
The claims made above are compatible with each of the following EXCEPT:
(A) African music has had a more powerful impact on the world than European music has had.
(B) European military and economic expansionism partially explains the global influence of European music.
(C) The original functions of many types of Chinese music are no longer their defining forces.
(D) Music that is unintelligible when it is presented independently of its original function tends to be the most sophisticated music.
(E) Some works of art lose their appeal when they are presented to serve a function other than their original one.



Noboru... OA pls with OE as well

I am vouching for E still
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Re: One reason why European music has had such a strong [#permalink] New post 05 Nov 2013, 09:59
Its D ... please post OA? ... Such variety of answers .. :)
Re: One reason why European music has had such a strong   [#permalink] 05 Nov 2013, 09:59
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