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One reason why European music has had such a strong

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One reason why European music has had such a strong [#permalink] New post 23 Sep 2009, 11:33
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25. One reason why European music has had such a strong influence throughout the world, and why it is a sophisticated achievement, is that over time the original function of the music—whether ritual, dance, or worship—gradually became an aspect of its style, not its defining force. Dance music could stand independent of dance, for example, and sacred music independent of religious worship, because each composition has so much internal coherence that the music ultimately depends on nothing but itself.
The claims made above are compatible with each of the following EXCEPT:
(A) African music has had a more powerful impact on the world than European music has had.
(B) European military and economic expansionism partially explains the global influence of European music.
(C) The original functions of many types of Chinese music are no longer their defining forces.
(D) Music that is unintelligible when it is presented independently of its original function tends to be the most sophisticated music.
(E) Some works of art lose their appeal when they are presented to serve a function other than their original one.
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Re: European music [#permalink] New post 23 Sep 2009, 13:13
No clue :shock:
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Re: European music [#permalink] New post 23 Sep 2009, 13:51
pm4553 wrote:
No clue :shock:


This must be a +750 monster
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Re: European music [#permalink] New post 23 Sep 2009, 14:07
noboru wrote:
pm4553 wrote:
No clue :shock:


This must be a +750 monster


I was inching towards 850 :)
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Re: European music [#permalink] New post 23 Sep 2009, 16:28
pm4553 wrote:
noboru wrote:
pm4553 wrote:
No clue :shock:


This must be a +750 monster


I was inching towards 850 :)


Hehehe... tough one...

Well, I bet on E.
The point is:
Origin is NOT as important as the Style.
That eliminates B, C and D.
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Re: European music [#permalink] New post 26 Sep 2009, 10:47
diogoguitarrista wrote:

Hehehe... tough one...

Well, I bet on E.
The point is:
Origin is NOT as important as the Style.
That eliminates B, C and D.


try again dude
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Re: European music [#permalink] New post 26 Sep 2009, 11:30
I think C.
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Re: European music [#permalink] New post 27 Sep 2009, 09:53
noboru wrote:
25. One reason why European music has had such a strong influence throughout the world, and why it is a sophisticated achievement, is that over time the original function of the music—whether ritual, dance, or worship—gradually became an aspect of its style, not its defining force. Dance music could stand independent of dance, for example, and sacred music independent of religious worship, because each composition has so much internal coherence that the music ultimately depends on nothing but itself.
The claims made above are compatible with each of the following EXCEPT:
(A) African music has had a more powerful impact on the world than European music has had.
(B) European military and economic expansionism partially explains the global influence of European music.
(C) The original functions of many types of Chinese music are no longer their defining forces.
(D) Music that is unintelligible when it is presented independently of its original function tends to be the most sophisticated music.
(E) Some works of art lose their appeal when they are presented to serve a function other than their original one.


I say A.

Because in the passage there's not EVEN A SINGLE MENTION ABOUT AFRICA. Maybe other options do not find much support in the passage, but A really stands out. We do not have any evidence about AFRICA to support A.

So I say A.

What's the OA?
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Re: European music [#permalink] New post 28 Sep 2009, 06:11
Also say A because it is the furthest one out there that doesnt seem to go with the passage
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Re: European music [#permalink] New post 28 Sep 2009, 07:17
looks like ans - A
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Re: European music [#permalink] New post 28 Sep 2009, 16:38
It's a hard question, but I would say A because no where mentions about African music.
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Re: European music [#permalink] New post 28 Sep 2009, 18:21
As far as I can tell, A and C are boobie trap answers. They both mention music from cultures that aren't mentioned in the original text. However, the question asks which of the choices are incompatible with the claims of the text. And neither one is: Just bc Euro music had a strong impact on the world doesn't mean that Afro music didn't have a greater one and changes in Chinese music is not mentioned so C is possible. B is also possible since the function becoming only an aspect of the music was called only "One reason" for the influence of Euro music on the world. D I'm not sure if I fully understand what the writer's saying. E says that works lose their appeal when they are used for a different function than the original. If it lost it's appeal then how could it gain stronger influence? My first bet would have been E but noboru says it's wrong so then I'll go with D bc the music waxed more sophisticated as it moved to have it's original purpose as an aspect of it rather than more than that. D is the opposite extreme with the use of "unintelligible" and the text doesn't appear to warrant that.

My answer is DD Nutz!!
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Re: European music [#permalink] New post 28 Sep 2009, 22:01
this one's hard one. but i'd say B. what in the hell does military and economic expansion have to do with influence of music??? u know??
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Re: European music [#permalink] New post 30 Sep 2009, 05:49
never seen a Question like this
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Re: European music [#permalink] New post 23 Oct 2009, 22:40
First i selected E than i opted for A.
@noboru...nice question ...cud u pls post OA with explainitoans..?
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Re: European music [#permalink] New post 24 Oct 2009, 01:28
D is the answer for me.
The passage says that European music has come to stand independent of its source and that it is a sophisticated achievement. D states something opposite to it - "sophistication is when the music can't stand independent".
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Re: European music [#permalink] New post 24 Oct 2009, 09:51
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Re: European music [#permalink] New post 25 Oct 2009, 07:45
One reason why European music has had such a strong influence throughout the world, and why it is a sophisticated achievement, is that over time the original function of the music—whether ritual, dance, or worship—gradually became an aspect of its style, not its defining force. Dance music could stand independent of dance, for example, and sacred music independent of religious worship, because each composition has so much internal coherence that the music ultimately depends on nothing but itself.
The claims made above are compatible with each of the following EXCEPT:
(A) African music has had a more powerful impact on the world than European music has had...Could be possible as the argument does not state that the European Music had the most powerful impact.
(B) European military and economic expansionism partially explains the global influence of European music...The argument gives 1 of the reasons and hence this clearly can also be one of the reasons
(C) The original functions of many types of Chinese music are no longer their defining forces...quite similar to European Music, where the original function is not the defining force.
(D) Music that is unintelligible when it is presented independently of its original function tends to be the most sophisticated music...SPOT ON...The argument states that European music's achievement is sophisticated and not that it is sophisticated due to the fact that it is presented independent of its function..Also no mention of European music being Unintelligible is given anywhere.
(E) Some works of art lose their appeal when they are presented to serve a function other than their original one.
Clearly not the case as the European music deviated from its function yet had an impact all over.


IMO its D
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Re: European music [#permalink] New post 26 Oct 2009, 06:38
What is OA?
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Re: European music [#permalink] New post 06 Nov 2009, 03:03
i think it is A
OA please
Re: European music   [#permalink] 06 Nov 2009, 03:03
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