Parallelism : GMAT Verbal Section

Parallelism

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Director

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Parallelism [#permalink]

22 Aug 2007, 00:05

If Dr. Wade is right, any apparent connection between eating highly processed foods and excellingat sports is purely coincidental.

Can anyone tell me whether this is a gerund-gerund or participle-participle or verb-verb parallelism...How do u decide that??

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gerund-gerund // [#permalink]

22 Aug 2007, 00:19

It is rather easy to define:
1) participle should define the noun or noun phrase
2) verb functions together with noun. So, the subject (connection) goes together with the verb (is). Thus, eating and excelling at are not verbs.
3) here eating and excelling at function as gerund since they take up some part of the noun functionality. When I studied English grammar the teacher explained it like this: gerund is something in between the verb and noun, i.e. it has functionality of both.

I am not a grammar guru, tried to explain in my own terms

Hope it helps.
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[#permalink]

22 Aug 2007, 11:41

Ya I also thought this as gerund-gerund parallelism at first but the OG says this is a participle-participle parallelism...any thoughts??

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Re: Parallelism [#permalink]

22 Aug 2007, 12:00

vineetgupta wrote:

I've always wondered the same thing. A particpial phrase should modify a noun whereas a gerund phrase stands in as a noun. So, the question is... what are the phrases modifying?

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Re: Parallelism [#permalink]

25 Aug 2007, 19:01

vineetgupta wrote:

found your answer. :wave

Gerunds are considered participles.
look for it on page 42
http://www.manhattanreview.com/students/downloads/

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Re: Parallelism [#permalink]

09 May 2010, 09:08

Hi,

As per Manhattan Review, in a IF-THEN sentence, it is the correct form of usage:
IF... is ..., THEN ... will...

But, there is no such option in the question. Is it correct to have this form:
IF... is ..., THEN ... is ...

Please explain.
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Re: Parallelism [#permalink] 09 May 2010, 09:08

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