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# People can debate the aesthetic merits of these overwrought,

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Senior Manager
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People can debate the aesthetic merits of these overwrought, [#permalink]

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28 Dec 2005, 05:14
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People can debate the aesthetic merits of these overwrought, disquieting, sometimes gruesome works of art, but no one can dispute their creators' mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.

A. but no one can dispute their creators' mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
B. but none can dispute their creators' mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
C. but not a one can dispute their creators' mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
D. but no person can dispute their creators' mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
E. but none can dispute to their creators' mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
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28 Dec 2005, 07:50
I agree that nothing is wrong with A. But B is more concise, it replaces no one with none. Hence I am going to go with B.
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28 Dec 2005, 09:37
I'm picking B for the same reason stated by plsubbu
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28 Dec 2005, 09:56
The OA is B.

plsubbu, can you please write why B is more consise than A?
especially why none is better than no one?

Thanks

plsubbu wrote:
I agree that nothing is wrong with A. But B is more concise, it replaces no one with none. Hence I am going to go with B.
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28 Dec 2005, 18:58
I chose B as well.

I think 'none' and 'no one' are interchangeable but in this case, the use of "no one" changes the meaning of the sentence.

The sentence here is rhetorical, its NOT saying a PERSON can actually, physically dispute the merits of the art, but its more a modifying phrase that modifies the greatness of the paintings.

A) The use of 'no one' changes the meaning. It seems to say that no one can physically dispute the merits

B) The use of 'none' conveys the message across that merits of art are not disputable

Not sure if its too convincing but that's how I saw this sentence
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28 Dec 2005, 19:07
TeHCM wrote:
I chose B as well.

I think 'none' and 'no one' are interchangeable but in this case, the use of "no one" changes the meaning of the sentence.

The sentence here is rhetorical, its NOT saying a PERSON can actually, physically dispute the merits of the art, but its more a modifying phrase that modifies the greatness of the paintings.

A) The use of 'no one' changes the meaning. It seems to say that no one can physically dispute the merits

B) The use of 'none' conveys the message across that merits of art are not disputable

Not sure if its too convincing but that's how I saw this sentence

Well-done, buddy!!!

BTW, http://dictionary.reference.com/search?q=none
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28 Dec 2005, 19:17
TeHCM,

I think you are too good at this. I just went with B because none is more concise than no one....1 word vs. 2 because of my philosphy that you should always go with the shortest answer as along as it is gramatically and logically right. But I agree with your explanation. Good one.
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28 Dec 2005, 19:26
Sunshine,

This is a very good question..The answer choices are quite close.

Can you tell us whats the source ?

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28 Dec 2005, 21:22
TeHCM,

You have explained it nicely.

Regards,
Brajesh
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29 Dec 2005, 09:44
Thanks every one for discussing this question.

I really do not know the original source of this question. This is one of the questions I collected/stored from the webpage some time ago.

Itzrevs wrote:
Sunshine,

This is a very good question..The answer choices are quite close.

Can you tell us whats the source ?

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