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# Prolbem old problem

Author Message
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Founder
Affiliations: AS - Gold, UA - Silver, HH-Diamond
Joined: 04 Dec 2002
Posts: 12740
Location: United States (WA)
GMAT 1: 750 Q49 V42
GPA: 3.5
WE: Information Technology (Hospitality and Tourism)
Followers: 2612

Kudos [?]: 12389 [0], given: 3831

Prolbem old problem [#permalink]  18 May 2003, 21:52
Expert's post
I have been working on the question bank lately and found a problematic question here. It was posted by Stolyar a while ago.

Find an integer J.

(1) [J]=J^-1
(2) J^J=1

[...] is absolute value

The answer back then was ruled D.

Is 0^0=1 or is it undefined? I think somebody brought this one up lately. Can anybody help?

BBbbb
SVP
Joined: 03 Feb 2003
Posts: 1609
Followers: 6

Kudos [?]: 75 [0], given: 0

Re: Prolbem old problem [#permalink]  18 May 2003, 23:21
bb wrote:
I have been working on the question bank lately and found a problematic question here. It was posted by Stolyar a while ago.

Find an integer J.

(1) [J]=J^-1
(2) J^J=1

[...] is absolute value

The answer back then was ruled D.

Is 0^0=1 or is it undefined? I think somebody brought this one up lately. Can anybody help?

BBbbb

J^J=1 -- the only integer that satisfies is 1. 0^0 is not always =1; thus it has to be eliminated.
Founder
Affiliations: AS - Gold, UA - Silver, HH-Diamond
Joined: 04 Dec 2002
Posts: 12740
Location: United States (WA)
GMAT 1: 750 Q49 V42
GPA: 3.5
WE: Information Technology (Hospitality and Tourism)
Followers: 2612

Kudos [?]: 12389 [0], given: 3831

Re: Prolbem old problem [#permalink]  19 May 2003, 09:56
Expert's post
stolyar wrote:
bb wrote:
I have been working on the question bank lately and found a problematic question here. It was posted by Stolyar a while ago.

Find an integer J.

(1) [J]=J^-1
(2) J^J=1

[...] is absolute value

The answer back then was ruled D.

Is 0^0=1 or is it undefined? I think somebody brought this one up lately. Can anybody help?

BBbbb

J^J=1 -- the only integer that satisfies is 1. 0^0 is not always =1; thus it has to be eliminated.

What do you mean it is not always 1?
SVP
Joined: 03 Feb 2003
Posts: 1609
Followers: 6

Kudos [?]: 75 [0], given: 0

Well, it depends on a function. Different functions give different answers.

f(x)=x^x for x=0
f(x)=(x-3)^(x-3) for x=3
f(x)=(x^2)^x for x=0

there are many functions that give 0^0 in some particular cases. Sometimes 0^0=1, other times infinity, still other times it does not exist.

such problems are to be solved by using difficult math analysis -- a derivative function or a prime function, which are NOT GMAT subjects.
Intern
Joined: 07 May 2003
Posts: 18
Followers: 0

Kudos [?]: 0 [0], given: 0

hi guys im confused ...can u clarify how J*J=1 for 1 only.

if J*J=1 , J=+/-1 both satisfy it.
Founder
Affiliations: AS - Gold, UA - Silver, HH-Diamond
Joined: 04 Dec 2002
Posts: 12740
Location: United States (WA)
GMAT 1: 750 Q49 V42
GPA: 3.5
WE: Information Technology (Hospitality and Tourism)
Followers: 2612

Kudos [?]: 12389 [0], given: 3831

Expert's post
arun wrote:
hi guys im confused ...can u clarify how J*J=1 for 1 only.

if J*J=1 , J=+/-1 both satisfy it.

if J is -1 then you will get (-1)^(-1), which equals to 1/(-1), whic is -1, that is negative. It is not J*J, it is J^J
SVP
Joined: 03 Feb 2003
Posts: 1609
Followers: 6

Kudos [?]: 75 [0], given: 0

Yeah... People confuse multiplication with raising into a power and vice versa
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