I took the GMAT a couple of years back and scored a 690. I put off going to school due to family issues. I am reapplying this year and have some time..so I figured I would retake the test to see if I can get a higher score.
I feel very stupid as I remember doing these type of questions in the past, but I am drawing a blank on this particular question.
I have even looked at the answer and am still getting slightly confused when it comes to the end.
I know how they get to:
√(n+1)+√n /√(n+1)^2 -√n^2
I am just confused when simplifying the expression further-the next line down where they have
How did they get the (√(n+1)^2-√(n)^2 out of the denominator?
Any assistance is appreciated.
IMG_0121.JPG [ 3.15 MiB | Viewed 737 times ]