Manhattan Prep Instructor
Joined: 06 Sep 2011
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Re: Reporting that one of their more crippling malfunctions has been the
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Updated on: 12 Jun 2013, 20:20
Of course meaning is important for SC, never more than in the last couple of years, but let the question and its answers tell you where to spend your time and energy. Understand the sentence, but don't begin either with a diagram of the sentence or with an explicit paraphrase.
Here, start with the split between its and their. I take the antecedent to be the Large Hadron Collider, which is singular. Even the best version of this sentence will turn out to be very awkward, and I can certainly see a structural case that the antecedent is the engineering squad, though exactly what that would mean I can't imagine. And it doesn't matter. Three of the alleged antecedents--the...squad, the...system, and the...Collider--are singular. Eliminate A and B.
(If you're really concerned that perhaps the antecedent is the very last word in the sentence, systems, then you had better take the time and trouble to think explicitly about meaning. Does it make sense to say that the squad requested funding for better systems because those better systems had a certain crippling malfunction? No.)
You could next go to the split between has been and is, or the split between sudden and suddenly. I'll start with sudden/suddenly. Since the word modifies the noun failure, we need to use the adjective sudden, rather than the adverb suddenly. Eliminate E.
That leaves the verb tense issue. When given a split among verb tenses, choose the tense that makes the order of events clear. The past perfect had been makes clear that the malfunction was a failure before the squad requested funding, that it, malfunctions had been is an earlier past event, while the squad requested is a later past event. Choose D.
As promised, even the best sentence turned out to be pretty awkward.
OK, I want to clear up a couple of misconceptions in some otherwise excellent answers. These are not important to the present question, but the authors of these misconceptions gave such good analyses that I want to offer a couple of friendly amendments.
First, Shraddha, of the wonderful visual organizers, the sentence does not say that the system is malfunctioning, it says that the (sudden and unexpected) failure of the system has been one (of the more crippling) malfunction. This might seem to be logic-chopping, but it's not. I gather that you suppose that the pronoun its[i]/their[/i] will refer to the subject of its clause, so you need to be precise about grammar, not just meaning. Further, there is no reason to suppose in this case that the pronoun refers to the subject of its clause.
Second, ChrisLele, I wonder whether it's strictly true that "When we have a participle phrase (as we do here, beginning with 'reporting...'), the its/their must refer to the noun that comes immediately after the comma." That is a good style guideline, but by no means does it render all English sentences correctly. Consider the sentence, "Overcome by its charming GUI, Ralph decided to purchase the Mac rather than a less expensive PC." Clearly its refers to the Mac. Might the rule you cite work for the GMAT? That's largely an empirical question, and once I haven't investigated. It doesn't work for the sentence we're all concerned about in this thread, though I gather that this is not an actual GMAT SC.
Your next claim, ChrisLele, is not quite right even for the GMAT. You write, "In this case, the participle phrase is modifying the noun 'the engineering squad', which is singular." In fact, if a sentence begins with a participial phrase followed by a comma, the participial phrase does not modify the noun that follows. It usually modifies the entire subsequent clause by attributing action to the subject of that clause, the very noun following the comma. If we're trying to decide whether a participial is well-placed, this distinction between noun modifier and adverbial modifier is unimportant: the modifier has to touch the noun it modifies or the noun to which it attributes action. If we're concerned about meaning, though, there may be a real difference between using a participial phrase to modify a noun and using a participial phrase to modify a clause. Consider these two sentences:
(1) The man standing behind Alex played bass for Big Star.
(2) Standing behind Alex, the man played bass for Big Star.
In (1), the participial phrase standing behind Alex modifies the man. The man is standing behind Alex as the sentence is uttered. In (2), the participial phrase standing behind Alex modifies the entire clause, and tells us how the man played bass for Big Star.
(edited to answer smartyman 's question)
smartyman asks a very interesting question: Does the use of the past participle had been mean that it was no longer a problem by the time the funding was requested? No. The past participle can be used EITHER for an earlier past action/event that is complete before the later past action/event OR for an earlier past action/event that is still ongoing (or whose effects are still ongoing) at the time of the later past action/event.
Juan had suffered migraines for years before he asked his doctor about them, suggests that Juan still suffered migraines when he asked his doctor. You could also use a funny construction, had been+continuous verb, to communicate the same idea, Juan had been sufering migraines for years before he asked his doctor about them. I find the latter sentence awkward, and it really doesn't work with the continuous verb being. The problem had been being...? That's awful.
Originally posted by
MichaelS on 30 May 2012, 23:09.
Last edited by
MichaelS on 12 Jun 2013, 20:20, edited 3 times in total.