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SC: Barrons: No one but him

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SC: Barrons: No one but him [#permalink] New post 30 Mar 2005, 09:31
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A
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C
D
E

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No one but him could have told them that the thief was I.

A. him could have told them that the thief was I.
B.he could have told them that the thief was I.
C.he could have told them that the thief was me.
D. him could have told them that the thief was me.
E.he could have told them the thief was me.
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 [#permalink] New post 30 Mar 2005, 10:22
This is a tough one. Going by active/passive rules, I think B is right

What could have told them? (He)
Who was the thief? (I)
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 [#permalink] New post 30 Mar 2005, 10:26
He told them that the thief was me.
(C) for me.

It is different from "He told them that I was the thief".
In the first one, me is the object; in the second one, I is the subject.
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 [#permalink] New post 30 Mar 2005, 13:36
another one for C

"he told them that the thief was me" is the way to read this sentence. "no one but he" function as the subject here, hence required the subject pronouns. "me" is use to represent the object pronouns.
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 [#permalink] New post 30 Mar 2005, 18:30
match personal pronouns with personal pronouns, and object pronouns with object pronouns.

(A) - object (him) vs subject (I). Wrong.
(B) - subject (he) vs subject (I)
(C) - subject (he) vs object (me). Wrong.
(D) - object (him) vs object (me)
(E) - subject (He) vs object (me). Wrong.

Between B and D, I'll take D. B uses 'no one but he' is awkward sounding.

D it is.
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 [#permalink] New post 30 Mar 2005, 22:31
I GUES WE ALWAYS SAY" IT WAS ME WHO DID IT"

SOI GUESS ME SHOULDBE USED INSTEAD OF I

SO IT SHOULD BE C
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 [#permalink] New post 30 Mar 2005, 23:31
[quote="karun_aggarwal"]I GUES WE ALWAYS SAY" IT WAS ME WHO DID IT"

Do we say "It was me who did it" or "It was I who did it"? I think it's the latter, but i'm not sure. anybody help?

(B)
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 [#permalink] New post 31 Mar 2005, 07:57
From what I read, "It is I who did it" seem to be the correct usage, since "I" is supposed to be the subject in the sentence "I did it." However, it seemed that "It is me" has becoming more and more common and acceptable. I have not seen a GMAT question for this so I'm not sure what ETS considers to be correct. I would love to see if anybody has any input about ETS's perspective on this.

ywilfred, this question is not about parellel so your reasoning doesn't seem to be right.

And karun_aggarwal, please refrain from using all capital words sentences. It is considered the equivalent of shouting in the tradition of online communications. :)
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 [#permalink] New post 01 Apr 2005, 10:08
20. In the famous first two lines of "The Love Song of J. Alfred Prufrock," T.S. Eliot misuses a pronoun in the appositive phrase: "Let us go then, you and I, / when the evening is spread out against the sky . . . "

Right. The "you and I" should be in the objective case — "you and me" — to agree with the object pronoun "us."

Right, but "you and I" is acceptable — poetic license, you know — because it has to rhyme with "sky."

Wrong, the sentence is correct. The "you and I" agrees with "us," which is actually the subject of this sentence, not the object of a verb.



The third response, "wrong," is correct. The construction in Eliot's sentence is not the same as an imperative with the understood "you" as subject. For instance, if Moses demands of or implores the pharaoh, "Let us go," there is an understood subject, "[You, pharaoh], let us go." (And there is an object, as well, of course: "us.") However, when a cheerleader leaps up in a basketball game, and shouts "Let's go!" there is no understood "you" as subject. (We can't translate the cheerleader's "Let's go!" to "You, permit us/allow us to leave." The "us" that functions as an object in Moses' sentence does not function in the same manner in "Let's go." In fact, the only subject that makes sense in "Let's go" (Or "Let us go then, you and I") is a kind of understood "we."

We can best understand this construction as a descendent of the Latin hortatory subjunctive (or jussive subjunctive [it's been a long time]). In a Latin sentence which we would translate as "Let Quintus compose his own poems," what we, in English, take as an object, "Quintus," serves as the subject of the sentence; it determines the number and lnflection of the verb, etc. I think that's what is going on in Eliot's sentence, too. The "us" in Eliot's sentence is actually being understood as the subject-agent of that sentence; thus it is appropriate that an appositive for that subject-agent be in the nominative form, "you and I." I believe that's how the classicist Eliot might have regarded that sentence.

Last edited by thearch on 01 Apr 2005, 10:15, edited 1 time in total.
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 [#permalink] New post 01 Apr 2005, 10:10
Find more at
http://www.ccc.commnet.edu/grammar/cases.htm

Just quote this regarding the sentence we're discussing
"Garner* argues that when the pronoun precedes the but phrase, the objective case should be used ("None of the students were interested but him"); when the but phrase precedes the verb, the subject case is appropriate ("None of the students but he were interested"). The argument goes that in the former case but is behaving as a preposition, in the second as a conjunction."
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 [#permalink] New post 01 Apr 2005, 10:57
A - Interesting question.

No one but him could have told them that the thief was I.

A. him could have told them that the thief was I.
B.he could have told them that the thief was I.
C.he could have told them that the thief was me.
D. him could have told them that the thief was me.
E.he could have told them the thief was me.

Rules of subjective/objective pronoun:
1. If the pronoun is the subject of a sentence/clause, used the subjective form; if its the object, used the objective form.
2. A pronoun that immediately follows a derivate of "to be", such as is, are, was and were, should always be subjective.
3. If a pronoun is the object of a verb or a preposition, then the pronoun needs to be in objective form.
4. Special cases -
If a pronoun immediately follows "but", "except" it should always be objective.

Using rule #4 and rule #1, I arrived at A.
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 [#permalink] New post 01 Apr 2005, 11:28
I choose (A). For the first pronoun "him", you use the object pronoun because the noun before it is "but", and in this case "but" means "except". You will always use the object pronoun in this case.

For the next pronoun "them", use the object pronoun again because after all action verbs, object pronouns always follow.

Finally, for the last pronoun "I", use the subject pronoun because you always use the subject pronoun after the form of the verb "to be", or in this case "was"
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 [#permalink] New post 02 Apr 2005, 10:17
Should be B as the subjective case I is more appropriate in the end.


In the same wasy as:

It was she I was writing about.

and NOT

It was her I was writing about
  [#permalink] 02 Apr 2005, 10:17
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