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Since 1986, when the Department of Labor began to allow

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Since 1986, when the Department of Labor began to allow [#permalink] New post 04 Sep 2007, 14:00
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90. Since 1986, when the Department of Labor began to allow investment officers' fees to be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations began paying their investment advisers a small basic fee, with a contract promising higher fees if the managers perform well.

(A)  investment officers’ fees to be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations began
(B)   investment officers’ fees to be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations began
(C)  that fees of investment officers be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations have begun
(D)  fees of investment officers to be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations have begun
(E)   that investment officers' fees be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations began

OG 10th says:

The clause beginning Since 1986... indicates that the practice described in the second clause continued for some period of time after it began. Choice D, the best answer, supplies the present perfect have begun, which conveys this continuity; D also uses a construction that is appropriate when "allow" means "permit": allow... to be based on. Choices A, B, and E incorrectly use the past tense began rather than the present perfect; furthermore, in each of these options, they has no referent, since officers is a possessive modifier of fees. Choices A and C include the awkward phrase based on how the funds they manage perform. Choices C and E incorrectly use allow that.. .fees be based.


My question is:

Accroding to OG's explanation marked in red, the word they should refer to officers,but if you check the rest part of the sentence, there is a word their referring to corporations.

Is this situation OK in GMAT?

they--->officers
their--->corportations
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Re: SC OG10th, NO 90 [#permalink] New post 04 Sep 2007, 16:41
sch wrote:
90. Since 1986, when the Department of Labor began to allow investment officers' fees to be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations began paying their investment advisers a small basic fee, with a contract promising higher fees if the managers perform well.

(A)  investment officers’ fees to be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations began
(B)   investment officers’ fees to be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations began
(C)  that fees of investment officers be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations have begun
(D)  fees of investment officers to be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations have begun
(E)   that investment officers' fees be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations began

OG 10th says:

The clause beginning Since 1986... indicates that the practice described in the second clause continued for some period of time after it began. Choice D, the best answer, supplies the present perfect have begun, which conveys this continuity; D also uses a construction that is appropriate when "allow" means "permit": allow... to be based on. Choices A, B, and E incorrectly use the past tense began rather than the present perfect; furthermore, in each of these options, they has no referent, since officers is a possessive modifier of fees. Choices A and C include the awkward phrase based on how the funds they manage perform. Choices C and E incorrectly use allow that.. .fees be based.


My question is:

Accroding to OG's explanation marked in red, the word they should refer to officers,but if you check the rest part of the sentence, there is a word their referring to corporations.

Is this situation OK in GMAT?

they--->officers
their--->corportations


in general the pronoun refers to the preceding noun. however in some cases, opeing phrases, it also refers to the succeding noun.

here "they" refers to officers and "their" to corportations. "their" doesnot refer to 'they". may be because their is possesive noun of they, you are assuming their shopld refers to they. its not..
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Re: SC OG10th, NO 90 [#permalink] New post 05 Sep 2007, 05:28
Fistail wrote:
sch wrote:
90. Since 1986, when the Department of Labor began to allow investment officers' fees to be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations began paying their investment advisers a small basic fee, with a contract promising higher fees if the managers perform well.

(A)  investment officers’ fees to be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations began
(B)   investment officers’ fees to be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations began
(C)  that fees of investment officers be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations have begun
(D)  fees of investment officers to be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations have begun
(E)   that investment officers' fees be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations began

OG 10th says:

The clause beginning Since 1986... indicates that the practice described in the second clause continued for some period of time after it began. Choice D, the best answer, supplies the present perfect have begun, which conveys this continuity; D also uses a construction that is appropriate when "allow" means "permit": allow... to be based on. Choices A, B, and E incorrectly use the past tense began rather than the present perfect; furthermore, in each of these options, they has no referent, since officers is a possessive modifier of fees. Choices A and C include the awkward phrase based on how the funds they manage perform. Choices C and E incorrectly use allow that.. .fees be based.


My question is:

Accroding to OG's explanation marked in red, the word they should refer to officers,but if you check the rest part of the sentence, there is a word their referring to corporations.

Is this situation OK in GMAT?

they--->officers
their--->corportations


in general the pronoun refers to the preceding noun. however in some cases, opeing phrases, it also refers to the succeding noun.

here "they" refers to officers and "their" to corportations. "their" doesnot refer to 'they". may be because their is possesive noun of they, you are assuming their shopld refers to they. its not..


and in rare cases, pronouns refer to other pronouns that are subjects.
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Re: SC OG10th, NO 90 [#permalink] New post 05 Sep 2007, 17:56
Fistail wrote:
sch wrote:
90. Since 1986, when the Department of Labor began to allow investment officers' fees to be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations began paying their investment advisers a small basic fee, with a contract promising higher fees if the managers perform well.

(A)  investment officers’ fees to be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations began
(B)   investment officers’ fees to be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations began
(C)  that fees of investment officers be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations have begun
(D)  fees of investment officers to be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations have begun
(E)   that investment officers' fees be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations began

OG 10th says:

The clause beginning Since 1986... indicates that the practice described in the second clause continued for some period of time after it began. Choice D, the best answer, supplies the present perfect have begun, which conveys this continuity; D also uses a construction that is appropriate when "allow" means "permit": allow... to be based on. Choices A, B, and E incorrectly use the past tense began rather than the present perfect; furthermore, in each of these options, they has no referent, since officers is a possessive modifier of fees. Choices A and C include the awkward phrase based on how the funds they manage perform. Choices C and E incorrectly use allow that.. .fees be based.


My question is:

Accroding to OG's explanation marked in red, the word they should refer to officers,but if you check the rest part of the sentence, there is a word their referring to corporations.

Is this situation OK in GMAT?

they--->officers
their--->corportations


in general the pronoun refers to the preceding noun. however in some cases, opeing phrases, it also refers to the succeding noun.

here "they" refers to officers and "their" to corportations. "their" doesnot refer to 'they". may be because their is possesive noun of they, you are assuming their shopld refers to they. its not..


I dont agree your point marked in red:

I think that ,In one sentence, "THEY" or its possesive noun" THEIR" should refer to a same thing, here is my evidence:

OG 10th, NO.130

130. In a 5-to-4 decision, the Supreme Court ruled that two upstate New York counties owed restitution to three tribes of Oneida Indians for the unlawful seizure of their ancestral lands in the eighteenth century.

(A)  that two upstate New York counties owed resti­tution to three tribes of Oneida Indians for the unlawful seizure of
(B)  that two upstate New York counties owed resti­tution to three tribes of Oneida Indians because of their unlawful seizure of
(C)  two upstate New York counties to owe restitu­tion to three tribes of Oneida Indians for their unlawful seizure of
(D)  on two upstate New York counties that owed restitution to three tribes of Oneida Indians because they unlawfully seized
(E)   on the restitution that two upstate New York counties owed to three tribes of Oneida Indians for the unlawful seizure of

OG says:
Choice A, the best answer, uses that appropriately to introduce a clause that describes the Supreme Court's ruling; A also employs the idiomatic phrase restitution... for. In choice B, restitution... because of is not idiomatic. The plural pronouns their in B and C and they in D are confusing as references to counties, especially since their refers to the Oneida in the phrase their ancestral lands. Choices C, D, and E each fail to use that to introduce the clause that explains the Court's ruling; as a result, the phrasing in those choices is awkward, unidiomatic, and imprecise.

accroding to OG's answer to No.130, i think OG require that a pronoun in one sentence , no matter weather it is a possive noun, refer to a uniform object.

********

Open to discuss
Re: SC OG10th, NO 90   [#permalink] 05 Sep 2007, 17:56
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