Some people have questioned the teacher's objectivity in awarding marks. she was found to be more partial to girl students than she would to boy students.But the record shows that she has given paasing marks to 60% of the boys in the class while passing only 85% of the girls. This clearly shows that the teacher has not discriminated against boys in the class in awarding marks.
Which of the following, if true, whould most seriously weaken the claim that the teacher is biased towards girl students?
(A) A large number of the students whom the teacher evaluated were boys.
(B) Many teachers find it difficult to be objective when awarding marks to the students since they always have a personal bias/favorites.
(C) The teacher is baised against the boys who complained that boys who did not complain to the officials.
(D) The partiality against boys that the teacher is accused of, have been of boys who did not pass in at least one other subject.
(E) Teacher do not know if the marks were awarded to a boys or a girl as only the roll number is written on the answer paper.
It should be E, because if E is true that will seriously weaken the argument.
Can you please give the source of this problem?