Strange English : GMAT Verbal Section
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# Strange English

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06 Apr 2005, 23:16
I was walking past a church the other day and saw a banner with this written on it:

"The lord is risen"

Is this right ?? I think "The lord has risen" would be grammatically correct.

What do you think ?
If you have any questions
New!
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07 Apr 2005, 01:53
Yes it should 'has risen' - past participle.
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07 Apr 2005, 02:37
in my opinion, to rise is not transitive, so passive form isn't correct
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07 Apr 2005, 04:34
thearch wrote:
in my opinion, to rise is not transitive, so passive form isn't correct

What do you mean by passive form is not correct? Both seem to be passive to me but it is just a matter of applying the right auxiliary. For example, "rain" is an intransitive(no direct object) verb but does have the passive form (it has rained). In the original question, I believe "has risen" to be the proper form although there could have been some influence of "popular english" which turned it into "is risen".

Tell me about living in a GMAT parallel dimension to the point of correcting errors of whatever surrounds us or whoever talks to us
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Best Regards,

Paul

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07 Apr 2005, 05:20
Paul wrote:
thearch wrote:
in my opinion, to rise is not transitive, so passive form isn't correct

What do you mean by passive form is not correct? Both seem to be passive to me but it is just a matter of applying the right auxiliary. For example, "rain" is an intransitive(no direct object) verb but does have the passive form (it has rained). In the original question, I believe "has risen" to be the proper form although there could have been some influence of "popular english" which turned it into "is risen".

Tell me about living in a GMAT parallel dimension to the point of correcting errors of whatever surrounds us or whoever talks to us

That's what happens when we get too indulged in sentence correction !
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07 Apr 2005, 07:31
I was taught that "has risen" as well as "has rained" are present perfect tense (active form), not passive form.
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07 Apr 2005, 08:19
thearch wrote:
I was taught that "has risen" as well as "has rained" are present perfect tense (active form), not passive form.

The reason I used the present perfect 'has risen' is solely because the lord rose in the past and it remains a fact today (at least to believers).
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07 Apr 2005, 08:29
ywilfred wrote:
thearch wrote:
I was taught that "has risen" as well as "has rained" are present perfect tense (active form), not passive form.

The reason I used the present perfect 'has risen' is solely because the lord rose in the past and it remains a fact today (at least to believers).

yes but you think that "has rained" is a passive form with "have" as auxiliary or a 3rd person of present perfect tense?
07 Apr 2005, 08:29
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