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I will go for B. We are trying to find a relation between homicide rates and watching television. If watching television causes violence in society (and not the logical opposite i.e. violence in society causes production of action/violent programs) then it there is a strong causal relationship between introduction of TV and increase in violence.
Causal reasoning. Answer, I think, is B - post the OA please.
The night is at its darkest just before the dawn... never, ever give up!
Columnist: The advent of television helps to explain why the growth in homicide rates in urban areas began significantly earlier than the growth in homicide rates in rural areas. Television sets became popular in urban households about four years earlier than in rural households. Urban homicide rates began increasing in 1958, about four years earlier than a similar increase in rural homicide rates began. Which one of the following, if true, most support the columnist’s argument? (A) In places where the number of violent television programs is low, the homicide rates are also low. (B) The portrayal of violence on television is a cause, not an effect of the violence in society. (C) There were no violent television programs during the early years of television. (D) The earlier one is exposed to violence on television, the more profound the effect. (E) Increasing one’s amount of leisure time increases one’s inclination to act violently.
I will go with D.
TV sets became popular in urban 4 yrs earlier than in rural ---> urban homicide rates start 4 yrs earlier in urban than those in rural
so D = says that urban was exposed earlier than rural so the homicide rates are earlier
what is ANS ????
Re: The advent of television
06 Nov 2010, 09:48