The aim of the new regulations is to make it easier for

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Director

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21 Jun 2005, 12:33

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The aim of the new regulations is to make it easier for prospective homeowners to have funds available for energy improvement in their new houses.
(A) to make it easier for prospective homeowners to have
(B) to make easier for prospective homeowners the having of
(C) making it easier for prospective homeowners so they can have
(D) that prospective homeowners more easily can have
(E) for prospective homeowners to more easily have

Please post why you eliminated an AC and how you arrived at your AC.

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21 Jun 2005, 20:54

Straightaway A looks good.

aim..is to...

that is the correct idiom. My aim is to do this or be that, etc.

B,C,D,E can be eliminated simply based on the incorrect idiom.

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01 Jul 2005, 05:25

What does "it" stand for? Is "it" one of those pronouns that doesnt have an antecedent?

Without question, AC "A" is the correct answer. I've seen some posts on this thread say that "Aim to" is an idiom. I could not find the idiom in quite a few books. Perhaps it might not be an idiom and we are missing the concept tested by this question.

If anyone/someone can clarify the concept being tested that would be great.

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01 Jul 2005, 19:21

gmataquaguy wrote:

I painstakinlgy chose B over A because of the "it".
Can someone please explain why we can live with "it" in A.

TIA.
HMTG.

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02 Jul 2005, 10:46

HMTG, here "it", the pronoun doesnt need an antecedent. For e.g:

IT is Sunday. What does "it" refer to? Nothing really...It just acts as a subject.

Bumping up this thread to get a solid explanation on the concept being tested.

regards,
gmataquaguy

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02 Jul 2005, 12:56

Hi gmataquaguy,

The concept being tested in this SC, is parallelism. To make... to have.
It clearly refers to "funds available for energy improvement"

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05 Jul 2005, 14:46

But how could a "pronoun" refer to anything besides a single worded "noun". I mean we cant refer to noun clauses, etc, etc.

A "simple" pronoun [vs relative pronoun] has to refer to "one" word?

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06 Jul 2005, 21:35

I don't think "it" is referring to anything in A.

This is one of the cases where "it" does not have any antecedent.

E.g. It is raining outside.
In the above sentence "it" has no referent.

As to the question of what is being tested, I am not too sure. Since A is correct,probably what the testers want to test is if we can understand that "it" can be used without referring to any pronoun.

Also, the other answers have very glaring mistakes. The testers are also testing us to see if we recognize the mistakes in the wrong answer choices.

Idioms related to aim(my own notes, you can disagree) :

aim for ( to get tangible things...aim for a gold medal )
aim to ( in the sense of achieving/intending something)
aim at ( point somethign at someone)
aim with ( use something to point to someoen )
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10 Jul 2005, 19:42

The "aim at/for/with/to" has been answered already. Other than that, we are dealing here with the impersonal "it" pronoun. It is just present to make the sentence coherent and complete (inclusion of subject, verb, object). It is like saying "Let it be", "So be it" or "It rains". "it" in the previous examples does not stand for anything but for sentence coherence.
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Best Regards,

Paul

[#permalink] 10 Jul 2005, 19:42

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