The archaemenid empire of Persia reached the Indus Valley in

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03 Feb 2006, 23:57

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The archaemenid empire of Persia reached the Indus Valley in the fifth century B.C., bringing [the Arametic script with it, from which was derived both nothern and] southern Indian alphabets.

Note: [...] is the question

A. the Arametic script with it, from which was derived both northern and
B. the Arametic script with it, and from which deriving both the northern and the
C. with it the Arametic script, from which derive both the northen and the
D. with it the Arametic script, from which derives both northern and
E. with it the Arametic script, and deriving from it both the northern and

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04 Feb 2006, 01:31

The archaemenid empire of Persia reached the Indus Valley in the fifth century B.C., bringingthe Arametic script with it, from which was derived both nothern andsouthern Indian alphabets

A. the Arametic script with it, from which was derived both northern and
B. the Arametic script with it, and from which deriving both the northern and the
C. with it the Arametic script, from which derive both the northen and the
D. with it the Arametic script, from which derives both northern and
E. with it the Arametic script, and deriving from it both the northern and
I vote for C
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04 Feb 2006, 04:42

Nasty one for me.

I will go with B. This seems best among the worst.
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04 Feb 2006, 05:09

My rationale is:
(A) and (B) are out because "from which" modifies the script and not the "with it"
(E) is awkward and (D) is out because of subj-verb agreement

(C)

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04 Feb 2006, 07:15

Agree with Yurik and Thearch, it's C.
A and B are out, because it's not clear what "from" refers to - the script or the empire of Persia.
D is out - "derives" for "northern and southern"
E doesn't make sense with the "and" in there

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04 Feb 2006, 07:49

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06 Feb 2006, 06:28

Is "Arametic script" plural?

I understood that it's more on singular since there is no "s" behind "script".

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06 Feb 2006, 09:21

ffgmat wrote:

Is "Arametic script" plural?

I understood that it's more on singular since there is no "s" behind "script".

Yes it is singular !Why do you ask?
In C from which derive both the northen and the southern Indian alphabets derive refers to plural cause there are 2 alphabets mentioned
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[#permalink] 06 Feb 2006, 09:21

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