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The Glass House Mountains in QueensIand, Australia, were [#permalink]
01 Feb 2010, 19:31
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The Glass House Mountains in QueensIand, Australia, were sighted in 1770 by the English navigator Captain James Cook, by whom they were named supposedly because its sheer wet rocks glistened like glass.
C) Naming them supposedly since their D) who so named them supposedly because their
I chose C. I know it is wrong because of "since", however, not sure what the problem with "naming" is. According to the OG, as the object of a preposition and not the subject of the clause, James Cook does not work as the noun that the verbal phrase beginning with "naming" can describe. I dont understand; isn't James who did the action of "name"??
D is the correct answer. It makes sense for me, except for "so". what does it refer to? why do we need it?
Thanks,
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Re: OG - 12th edition - q.1 [#permalink]
03 Mar 2010, 11:44
My question is: isn't Captain James Cook the object of the sentence, so shouldn't it be whom, NOT who?
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Re: OG - 12th edition - q.1 [#permalink]
03 Mar 2010, 21:37
Well, there is also diction - proper use of Since and Because Since has to be time related, while Because shows the cause. I'm a GMAT instructor for Manhattan ReviewIf you need help studying for your GMAT feel free to look us up. _______________________ Manhattan ReviewUnlimited GMAT Class Hours & MBA Admissions +1 212 997 1660 | Singapore: +65 3106 2069 / +65 9686 8794 10% discount on all services for GMAT Club members
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Re: OG - 12th edition - q.1 [#permalink]
03 Mar 2010, 21:39
Sorry, just saw that you already caught the since. Another thing to note is naming, unless absolutely necessary, try to avoid progressive tense on the GMAT sentence correction questions.
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Re: OG - 12th edition - q.1 [#permalink]
04 Mar 2010, 02:52
Cinji18 wrote: My question is: isn't Captain James Cook the object of the sentence, so shouldn't it be whom, NOT who? "X was done by James Cook, who also did Y" "X was done by James Cook, whom Y can be attributed to" James Cook being the object does not necessarily require use of whom.
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Re: OG - 12th edition - q.1 [#permalink]
04 Mar 2010, 12:50
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Hey All, FOR REFERENCE: C) Naming them supposedly since their D) who so named them supposedly because their Just thought I'd weigh in on this, since I haven't seen a correct explanation. First, two introductory things: 1) As far as I know, "since" can sometimes be used as a synonym for because, though not when it's being used in a way where it can be misconstrued (interpreted as EITHER time or cause). 2) While -ing words are not always the best construction, it is not useful to be crossing off answer choices merely because you see -ing words. They are common enough that it's not worth your time to separate them in your mind. Okay. Now, let's talk about other issues here: 1) C is wrong because it lacks the "so named", not because of the-ing form. C makes it sound that he named them ANYTHING because of the wet rocks. But the idea is that he named them IN A PARTICULAR WAY because of the wet rocks. In other words, C could be used in a sentence like "The rabbits were dubbed Adam and Eve by the veterinarian, naming them because she was the one who found them". But we want to make a point that they were named THE GLASS HOUSE MOUNTAINS because of the wet rocks, so we need the "so named" part. 2) Who/whom. It is dependent on how the pronoun is used in the sentence, not what came before. I can say, "It was given to be by James Cook, who eventually ate it." This answers the question, "Who ate it?" "He did!" So it's a subject pronoun (though it was an indirect object, within the prepositional phrase, in the previous clause). In contrast, If someone asked me who gave me the cookie, I could answer: "Dave, whom I will see tomorrow." Even though Dave is the subject of the understood sentence "Dave gave it to me", he has now become the object of the main clause: "I will see HIM tomorrow". Word. Hope that helps!
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Re: OG - 12th edition - q.1 [#permalink]
05 Mar 2010, 08:19
Thanks for the detailed explanation.
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Re: The Glass House Mountains in QueensIand, Australia, were [#permalink]
05 Aug 2012, 15:13
MontrealLady wrote: The Glass House Mountains in QueensIand, Australia, were sighted in 1770 by the English navigator Captain James Cook, by whom they were named supposedly because its sheer wet rocks glistened like glass.
C) Naming them supposedly since their D) who so named them supposedly because their
I chose C. I know it is wrong because of "since", however, not sure what the problem with "naming" is. According to the OG, as the object of a preposition and not the subject of the clause, James Cook does not work as the noun that the verbal phrase beginning with "naming" can describe. I dont understand; isn't James who did the action of "name"??
D is the correct answer. It makes sense for me, except for "so". what does it refer to? why do we need it?
Thanks, I couldnt get why since is wrong here. For C, OG says: the preposition since loses the important causal logic of the sentence.But, since looks fine from synonymous and ambiguous meaning of because here. Am I missing something here?
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Re: The Glass House Mountains in QueensIand, Australia, were [#permalink]
06 Aug 2012, 11:00
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joshnsit wrote: MontrealLady wrote: The Glass House Mountains in QueensIand, Australia, were sighted in 1770 by the English navigator Captain James Cook, by whom they were named supposedly because its sheer wet rocks glistened like glass.
C) Naming them supposedly since their D) who so named them supposedly because their
I chose C. I know it is wrong because of "since", however, not sure what the problem with "naming" is. According to the OG, as the object of a preposition and not the subject of the clause, James Cook does not work as the noun that the verbal phrase beginning with "naming" can describe. I dont understand; isn't James who did the action of "name"??
D is the correct answer. It makes sense for me, except for "so". what does it refer to? why do we need it?
Thanks, I couldnt get why since is wrong here. For C, OG says: the preposition since loses the important causal logic of the sentence.But, since looks fine from synonymous and ambiguous meaning of because here. Am I missing something here? Using since in this sentense is makes the sentense ambiguous, it can mean two things rocks are named because sheer wet rocks glistened like glass rocks are named since the time when the sheer wet rocks glistened like glass Hope that helps
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Re: The Glass House Mountains in QueensIand, Australia, were [#permalink]
10 Jan 2013, 10:20
C is wrong because
comma+naming (comma+doing) modifies the previouse clause and associate with subject "mountains"
this make no sense
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Re: OG - 12th edition - q.1 [#permalink]
15 Jan 2013, 03:49
TommyWallach wrote: Hey All,
FOR REFERENCE: C) Naming them supposedly since their D) who so named them supposedly because their
Just thought I'd weigh in on this, since I haven't seen a correct explanation. First, two introductory things:
1) As far as I know, "since" can sometimes be used as a synonym for because, though not when it's being used in a way where it can be misconstrued (interpreted as EITHER time or cause).
2) While -ing words are not always the best construction, it is not useful to be crossing off answer choices merely because you see -ing words. They are common enough that it's not worth your time to separate them in your mind.
Okay. Now, let's talk about other issues here:
1) C is wrong because it lacks the "so named", not because of the-ing form. C makes it sound that he named them ANYTHING because of the wet rocks. But the idea is that he named them IN A PARTICULAR WAY because of the wet rocks. In other words, C could be used in a sentence like "The rabbits were dubbed Adam and Eve by the veterinarian, naming them because she was the one who found them". But we want to make a point that they were named THE GLASS HOUSE MOUNTAINS because of the wet rocks, so we need the "so named" part.
2) Who/whom. It is dependent on how the pronoun is used in the sentence, not what came before. I can say, "It was given to be by James Cook, who eventually ate it." This answers the question, "Who ate it?" "He did!" So it's a subject pronoun (though it was an indirect object, within the prepositional phrase, in the previous clause). In contrast, If someone asked me who gave me the cookie, I could answer: "Dave, whom I will see tomorrow." Even though Dave is the subject of the understood sentence "Dave gave it to me", he has now become the object of the main clause: "I will see HIM tomorrow".
Word.
Hope that helps! in C comma appears before "naming" comma+doing never modify immediately preceding noun, but modify the preceding clause and associate with the subject of that clause. C is wrong clearly Am I correct?
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Re: The Glass House Mountains in QueensIand, Australia, were [#permalink]
07 Feb 2013, 07:53
Dear Manhantan expert
comma+namming
modifies the previous clause and associates with the subject of that clause
C means mountains names them
this is not logic.
is my thinking correct?
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Re: The Glass House Mountains in QueensIand, Australia, were
[#permalink]
07 Feb 2013, 07:53
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