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The recently negotiated North American Free Trade Agreement

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The recently negotiated North American Free Trade Agreement [#permalink] New post 28 May 2008, 00:09
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E

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The recently negotiated North American Free Trade Agreement among Canada, Mexico, and the United States is misnamed, because it would not result in truly free trade. Adam Smith, the economist who first articulated the principles of free trade, held that any obstacle placed in the way of the free movement of goods, investment, or labor would defeat free trade. So since under the agreement workers would be restricted by national boundaries from seeking the best conditions they could find, the resulting obstruction of the flow of trade would, from a free-trade perspective, be harmful.

The argument proceeds by

(A) ruling out alternatives
(B) using a term in two different senses
(C) citing a nonrepresentative instance
(D) appealing to a relevant authority
(E) responding to a different issue from the one posed

I'm a bit confused in the question. Can someone clarify what does this question mean?
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Re: CR [#permalink] New post 28 May 2008, 00:16
Snayt wrote:
The recently negotiated North American Free Trade Agreement among Canada, Mexico, and the United States is misnamed, because it would not result in truly free trade. Adam Smith, the economist who first articulated the principles of free trade, held that any obstacle placed in the way of the free movement of goods, investment, or labor would defeat free trade. So since under the agreement workers would be restricted by national boundaries from seeking the best conditions they could find, the resulting obstruction of the flow of trade would, from a free-trade perspective, be harmful.

The argument proceeds by

(A) ruling out alternatives
(B) using a term in two different senses
(C) citing a nonrepresentative instance
(D) appealing to a relevant authority
(E) responding to a different issue from the one posed

I'm a bit confused in the question. Can someone clarify what does this question mean?


D for me!
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Re: CR [#permalink] New post 28 May 2008, 02:06
Snayt wrote:
The recently negotiated North American Free Trade Agreement among Canada, Mexico, and the United States is misnamed, because it would not result in truly free trade. Adam Smith, the economist who first articulated the principles of free trade, held that any obstacle placed in the way of the free movement of goods, investment, or labor would defeat free trade. So since under the agreement workers would be restricted by national boundaries from seeking the best conditions they could find, the resulting obstruction of the flow of trade would, from a free-trade perspective, be harmful.

The argument proceeds by

(A) ruling out alternatives
(B) using a term in two different senses
(C) citing a nonrepresentative instance
(D) appealing to a relevant authority
(E) responding to a different issue from the one posed

I'm a bit confused in the question. Can someone clarify what does this question mean?


I think the issue posed here is that NAFTA is misnamed, not that it is harmful to free trade.
Hence, E ????
Quite unsure of this one.
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Re: CR [#permalink] New post 28 May 2008, 03:32
i would have picked B
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Re: CR [#permalink] New post 28 May 2008, 11:14
I think its C .. as economist is giving contradictory example...
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Re: CR [#permalink] New post 28 May 2008, 11:26
I think this question is asking the what is the structure of the argument. My pick is C. As auther starts with sarcasm with Nafta is misnamed and the provide a defination what nafta should be. And example of nonrepresentative use of NAFTA. Anyways whats the OA?
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Re: CR [#permalink] New post 28 May 2008, 12:12
D.
Appealing to a relevant authority, and Adam Smith is it!
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Re: CR [#permalink] New post 28 May 2008, 12:18
OA is D
Re: CR   [#permalink] 28 May 2008, 12:18
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