The second half of the 20th century would have been a : GMAT Sentence Correction (SC)
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# The second half of the 20th century would have been a

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Manager
Joined: 24 Aug 2012
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The second half of the 20th century would have been a [#permalink]

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07 Oct 2012, 14:59
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Difficulty:

15% (low)

Question Stats:

69% (01:45) correct 31% (01:13) wrong based on 101 sessions

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The second half of the 20th century would have been a different and much more ugly place would it not for this epochal triumph of historical communism over European Fascism.

a) would is not for this epochal triumph of historical communism over European Fascism.
b) would it have not been for this epochal triumph of historical communism over European Fascism?
c) ‘had’ it not been for this epochal triumph of historical communism over European Fascism?
d) was it not for this epochal triumph of historic communism over European Fascism?
e) would it not have for this epochal triumph of historical communism over European Fascism?
[Reveal] Spoiler: OA

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Last edited by kingb on 08 Oct 2012, 00:34, edited 1 time in total.
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Re: The second half of the 20th century would have been [#permalink]

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07 Oct 2012, 16:09
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kingb wrote:
The second half of the 20th century would have been a different and much more ugly place would it not for this epochal triumph of historical communism over European Fascism.

a) would is not for this epochal triumph of historical communism over European Fascism.
b) would it have not been for this epochal triumph of historical communism over European Fascism?
c) ‘had’ it not been for this epochal triumph of historical communism over European Fascism?
d) was it not for this epochal triumph of historic communism over European Fascism?
e) would it not have for this epochal triumph of historical communism over European Fascism?

This is an example of inverse sentence. "epochal triumph" happened in the past and than 'ugly place' scenario was described about second half of the 20th century.

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Re: The second half of the 20th century would have been [#permalink]

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07 Oct 2012, 17:25

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Re: The second half of the 20th century would have been a [#permalink]

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22 Oct 2013, 04:23
agree with C. But why does it have a ? in the end. Is it correct? Can someone please help and explain..thanks
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Re: The second half of the 20th century would have been a [#permalink]

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22 Oct 2013, 10:50
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Expert's post
ankur1901 wrote:
agree with C. But why does it have a ? in the end. Is it correct? Can someone please help and explain..thanks

The question mark is clearly an error in copying the problem over into the post.

As for the explanation, this question revolves around the proper use of a "would" conditional sentence - "If I had eaten breakfast, I would not have been so hungry this morning." [if + past perfect, would +have ...] This sentence inverts the order so the "would" portion is presented first [would + have ... ], so the correct answer must include the past perfect in the underlined portion. Only answer choice C does that.

KW
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Re: The second half of the 20th century would have been a   [#permalink] 22 Oct 2013, 10:50
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