Find all School-related info fast with the new School-Specific MBA Forum

It is currently 23 Aug 2014, 04:07

Close

GMAT Club Daily Prep

Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track
Your Progress

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.

Events & Promotions

Events & Promotions in June
Open Detailed Calendar

The term Immaculate Conception , a doctrine that the Roman

  Question banks Downloads My Bookmarks Reviews Important topics  
Author Message
TAGS:
Expert Post
Magoosh GMAT Instructor
User avatar
Joined: 28 Dec 2011
Posts: 2032
Followers: 487

Kudos [?]: 1994 [0], given: 30

The term Immaculate Conception , a doctrine that the Roman [#permalink] New post 13 Dec 2012, 11:35
Expert's post
1
This post was
BOOKMARKED
00:00
A
B
C
D
E

Difficulty:

  25% (medium)

Question Stats:

66% (02:23) correct 34% (01:15) wrong based on 112 sessions
The term “Immaculate Conception”, a doctrine that the Roman Catholic Church formally proclaimed in 1854, not referring to the conception of Jesus, which, according to Christianity, occurred miraculously despite his mother Mary being a virgin, but to the conception of Mary in the womb of her mother, Anne, despite the fact that they believe this conception occurred with ordinary procreative means.

(A) that the Roman Catholic Church formally proclaimed in 1854, not referring to the conception of Jesus, which, according to Christianity, occurred miraculously despite his mother Mary being a virgin, but to the conception of Mary in the womb of her mother, Anne, despite the fact that they believe this conception occurred with
(B) that the Roman Catholic Church formally proclaimed in 1854, did not refer to the conception of Jesus, that, as Christianity says, occurred miraculously even though his mother Mary was a virgin, but to the conception of Mary in the womb of her mother, Anne, despite the fact that this conception is believed to be occurring by
(C) of the Roman Catholic Church formally proclaimed in 1854, referring not to the conception of Jesus, that in Christianity occurred miraculously with his mother Mary being a virgin, and to the conception of Mary in the womb of her mother, Anne, despite the fact that this conception is believed to have occurred in
(D) of the Roman Catholic Church formally proclaimed in 1854, refers not to the conception of Jesus, which, according to Christianity, occurred miraculously even though his mother Mary was a virgin, but to the conception of Mary in the womb of her mother, Anne, despite the fact that this conception is believed to have occurred by
(E) of the Roman Catholic Church formally proclaimed in 1854, referred not to the conception of Jesus, that, as Christianity says, occurred miraculously when his mother Mary was a virgin, and to the conception of Mary in the womb of her mother, Anne, despite the fact that they believe this conception occurred by


For a discussion of Sentence Correction tips, as well as a full analysis of this particular question, see this blogpost:
http://magoosh.com/gmat/2012/top-six-gm ... orrection/
[Reveal] Spoiler: OA

_________________

Mike McGarry
Magoosh Test Prep

Image

Image

Kaplan Promo CodeKnewton GMAT Discount CodesVeritas Prep GMAT Discount Codes
Expert Post
Verbal Forum Moderator
Verbal Forum Moderator
User avatar
Status: Preparing for the another shot...!
Joined: 03 Feb 2011
Posts: 1425
Location: India
Concentration: Finance, Marketing
GPA: 3.75
Followers: 127

Kudos [?]: 591 [0], given: 62

GMAT ToolKit User GMAT Tests User Premium Member
Re: The term “Immaculate Conception”, a doctrine [#permalink] New post 14 Dec 2012, 00:37
Expert's post
mikemcgarry wrote:
The term “Immaculate Conception”, a doctrine that the Roman Catholic Church formally proclaimed in 1854, not referring to the conception of Jesus, which, according to Christianity, occurred miraculously despite his mother Mary being a virgin, but to the conception of Mary in the womb of her mother, Anne, despite the fact that they believe this conception occurred with ordinary procreative means.

(A) that the Roman Catholic Church formally proclaimed in 1854, [color=#ff0000]not referring
to the conception of Jesus, which, according to Christianity, occurred miraculously despite his mother Mary being a virgin, but to the conception of Mary in the womb of her mother, Anne, despite the fact that they believe this conception occurred with
(B) that the Roman Catholic Church formally proclaimed in 1854, did not refer to the conception of Jesus, that, as Christianity says, occurred miraculously even though his mother Mary was a virgin, but to the conception of Mary in the womb of her mother, Anne, despite the fact that this conception is believed to be occurring by
(C) of the Roman Catholic Church formally proclaimed in 1854, referring not to the conception of Jesus, that in Christianity occurred miraculously with his mother Mary being a virgin, and to the conception of Mary in the womb of her mother, Anne, despite the fact that this conception is believed to have occurred in
(D) of the Roman Catholic Church formally proclaimed in 1854, refers not to the conception of Jesus, which, according to Christianity, occurred miraculously even though his mother Mary was a virgin, but to the conception of Mary in the womb of her mother, Anne, despite the fact that this conception is believed to have occurred by
(E) of the Roman Catholic Church formally proclaimed in 1854, referred not to the conception of Jesus, that, as Christianity says, occurred miraculously when his mother Mary was a virgin, and to the conception of Mary in the womb of her mother, Anne, despite the fact that they believe this conception occurred by[/color]

For a discussion of Sentence Correction tips, as well as a full analysis of this particular question, see this blogpost:
http://magoosh.com/gmat/2012/top-six-gm ... orrection/


Though it initially seemed quite tough because a huge portion of sentence was underlined, after understanding the meaning it was clear that the question is testing some easy concepts.
i)"not to x, but to y"
ii) if the preceding phrase is not a part of a modifier then "that" can't be preceded by a "comma".

Some answer choices use "they" as referrent but its unclear what "they" refers to.

Choice C incorrectly uses "comma +verbing", implying a cause and effect relationship.

"Occured by" is correct not "occured with or occured in".
E doesn't shows the needed contrast.
+1D
_________________

Prepositional Phrases Clarified|Elimination of BEING| Absolute Phrases Clarified
Rules For Posting
www.Univ-Scholarships.com

Expert Post
Verbal Forum Moderator
Verbal Forum Moderator
User avatar
Status: Preparing for the another shot...!
Joined: 03 Feb 2011
Posts: 1425
Location: India
Concentration: Finance, Marketing
GPA: 3.75
Followers: 127

Kudos [?]: 591 [0], given: 62

GMAT ToolKit User GMAT Tests User Premium Member
Re: The term “Immaculate Conception”, a doctrine [#permalink] New post 14 Dec 2012, 00:40
Expert's post
what is the difference between "doctrine of..." and "doctrine that ...". Need help with this split.
_________________

Prepositional Phrases Clarified|Elimination of BEING| Absolute Phrases Clarified
Rules For Posting
www.Univ-Scholarships.com

Expert Post
Magoosh GMAT Instructor
User avatar
Joined: 28 Dec 2011
Posts: 2032
Followers: 487

Kudos [?]: 1994 [0], given: 30

Re: The term “Immaculate Conception”, a doctrine [#permalink] New post 14 Dec 2012, 11:58
Expert's post
Marcab wrote:
what is the difference between "doctrine of..." and "doctrine that ...". Need help with this split.

In this context, both of these are correct. Here we are talking about the source of the doctrine, not what the doctrine says.

The idiom for the word "doctrine" is similar to the idioms for the words "teaching", "idea", "ideology", "theory", "principle", etc. etc., all those "mental collection" words.

For the source, we can use either a "that"/"which" subordinate clause
= the doctrine that the pope proclaimed
= the idea about which Darwin first wrote
= the idea that Descartes repudiated

or we can use the preposition "of"
= the doctrine of classical Buddhism
= the teachings of Confucius
= the thought of the Thomist school
= the ideology of the Khmer Rouge


For what the doctrine/idea/teaching/ideology is actually saying, the thought embodied in it ----- this is tricky. If we are going to name only a single noun, then we can use the preposition "about" or the participle "concerning" or the preposition "of", but if we are going to describe an action, then the GMAT doesn't like cramming an entire action into a prepositional phrase --- for this case, the GMAT would demand either a "that"/"which" clause with a full [noun] + [verb] structure.
Noun-only constructions:
= the doctrine of the Prophet Muhammad unique status among prophets
= the doctrine about Christ's human and divine natures
= the teaching concerning the afterlife
= the teachings about racial tolerance
= the idea of non-conservation of parity
= the principle of least action

Full clause constructions
= the doctrine that Christ pre-existed from all eternity
= the teaching that the Buddha, in his first sermon, "turned" the wheel of Dharma
= the axiom by which the geometric space becomes Euclidean
= the idea that all men are created equal
= the hypothesis that Bacon wrote Shakespeare's plays
= the principle that one should resort to violence only in defense


Does all this make sense?

Mike :-)
_________________

Mike McGarry
Magoosh Test Prep

Image

Image

Expert Post
Verbal Forum Moderator
Verbal Forum Moderator
User avatar
Status: Preparing for the another shot...!
Joined: 03 Feb 2011
Posts: 1425
Location: India
Concentration: Finance, Marketing
GPA: 3.75
Followers: 127

Kudos [?]: 591 [0], given: 62

GMAT ToolKit User GMAT Tests User Premium Member
Re: The term “Immaculate Conception”, a doctrine [#permalink] New post 15 Dec 2012, 00:00
Expert's post
Hii Mike.
So in the answer choices, is "proclaimed" being used as a "participle" and not a "verb"?
If it is the case, then the question is crystal clear now.
Thanks in advance.
_________________

Prepositional Phrases Clarified|Elimination of BEING| Absolute Phrases Clarified
Rules For Posting
www.Univ-Scholarships.com

Expert Post
2 KUDOS received
Magoosh GMAT Instructor
User avatar
Joined: 28 Dec 2011
Posts: 2032
Followers: 487

Kudos [?]: 1994 [2] , given: 30

Re: The term “Immaculate Conception”, a doctrine [#permalink] New post 15 Dec 2012, 14:54
2
This post received
KUDOS
Expert's post
Marcab wrote:
Hii Mike.
So in the answer choices, is "proclaimed" being used as a "participle" and not a "verb"? If it is the case, then the question is crystal clear now.
Thanks in advance.

Dear Marcab,

This is one of the devilish things about this question ------
In the answers with the word "that"
... a doctrine that the Roman Catholic Church formally proclaimed in 1854,
the whole segment from the word "that" to the comma is a subordinate clause, a "that"-clause --- the words "Roman Catholic Church" is the subject of the clause and "proclaimed" is the verb of the clause, a bonafide real verb. Clauses always have a bonafide noun-subject and bonafide verb.

BUT
In the answers with the word "of"
... a doctrine of the Roman Catholic Church formally proclaimed in 1854,
now, the phrase "of the Roman Catholic Church" is just a prepositional phrase, a self-contained modifier, and the word "proclaimed" (same spelling!) now functions as a participle modifying the word "doctrine." It is not a full bonafide verb, but merely a participle, a modifier.

When I designed this question, I included this split, setting it up so the exact same form of the verb, proclaimed, same spelling and everything, would be used in some of the answers as a verb and in others as a participle. This is one of the harder features of the question to recognize.

Does all this make sense?

Mike :-)
_________________

Mike McGarry
Magoosh Test Prep

Image

Image

Expert Post
1 KUDOS received
Verbal Forum Moderator
Verbal Forum Moderator
User avatar
Status: Preparing for the another shot...!
Joined: 03 Feb 2011
Posts: 1425
Location: India
Concentration: Finance, Marketing
GPA: 3.75
Followers: 127

Kudos [?]: 591 [1] , given: 62

GMAT ToolKit User GMAT Tests User Premium Member
Re: The term “Immaculate Conception”, a doctrine [#permalink] New post 15 Dec 2012, 23:42
1
This post received
KUDOS
Expert's post
Fantastic explanation Mike.
Now the difference between verb and participle is very clear.
Thanks a lot.
+1 to you.
_________________

Prepositional Phrases Clarified|Elimination of BEING| Absolute Phrases Clarified
Rules For Posting
www.Univ-Scholarships.com

Manager
Manager
avatar
Joined: 13 Oct 2012
Posts: 78
Concentration: General Management, Leadership
Schools: IE '15 (A)
GMAT 1: 760 Q49 V46
Followers: 1

Kudos [?]: -15 [0], given: 0

Re: The term Immaculate Conception , a doctrine that the Roman [#permalink] New post 03 Jan 2013, 16:37
Good question!! Excellent explanation!!
Answer choice D addresses all issues in the original sentence
Intern
Intern
avatar
Joined: 28 Nov 2012
Posts: 48
Followers: 0

Kudos [?]: 2 [0], given: 3

Re: The term Immaculate Conception , a doctrine that the Roman [#permalink] New post 05 Jan 2013, 14:41
The term “Immaculate Conception”, a doctrine that the Roman Catholic Church formally proclaimed in 1854, not referring to the conception of Jesus, which, according to Christianity, occurred miraculously despite his mother Mary being a virgin, but to the conception of Mary in the womb of her mother, Anne, despite the fact that they believe this conception occurred with ordinary procreative means.

nailed this one pretty quickly, but it was a little intimidating at first.

(A) that the Roman Catholic Church formally proclaimed in 1854, not referring to the conception of Jesus, which, according to Christianity, occurred miraculously despite his mother Mary being a virgin, but to the conception of Mary in the womb of her mother, Anne, despite the fact that they believe this conception occurred with - see ya later "that"

(B) that the Roman Catholic Church formally proclaimed in 1854, did not refer to the conception of Jesus, that, as Christianity says, occurred miraculously even though his mother Mary was a virgin, but to the conception of Mary in the womb of her mother, Anne, despite the fact that this conception is believed to be occurring by - see ya later "that"

For these two I honed in on the verb "refer", since the doctrine has the ability to refer ie present tense, choose D.

Please let me know if my logic is wrong on that.

(C) of the Roman Catholic Church formally proclaimed in 1854, referring not to the conception of Jesus, that in Christianity occurred miraculously with his mother Mary being a virgin, and to the conception of Mary in the womb of her mother, Anne, despite the fact that this conception is believed to have occurred in - tense of referring, wrong

(D) of the Roman Catholic Church formally proclaimed in 1854, refers not to the conception of Jesus, which, according to Christianity, occurred miraculously even though his mother Mary was a virgin, but to the conception of Mary in the womb of her mother, Anne, despite the fact that this conception is believed to have occurred by

(E) of the Roman Catholic Church formally proclaimed in 1854, referred not to the conception of Jesus, that, as Christianity says, occurred miraculously when his mother Mary was a virgin, and to the conception of Mary in the womb of her mother, Anne, despite the fact that they believe this conception occurred by - the doctrine can refer today no need for the past tense here, tyson KO.
Re: The term Immaculate Conception , a doctrine that the Roman   [#permalink] 05 Jan 2013, 14:41
    Similar topics Author Replies Last post
Similar
Topics:
romans shoonya 15 27 Jun 2007, 20:53
The doctrinal dispute resulted in the dismissal of the vivek123 11 08 Jan 2006, 10:17
The doctrinal dispute resulted in the dismissal of the rahulraao 6 12 Sep 2005, 01:21
The doctrinal dispute resulted in the dismissal of the Antmavel 6 15 Mar 2005, 18:56
CR - doctrine anuramm 6 28 Aug 2004, 01:55
Display posts from previous: Sort by

The term Immaculate Conception , a doctrine that the Roman

  Question banks Downloads My Bookmarks Reviews Important topics  


GMAT Club MBA Forum Home| About| Privacy Policy| Terms and Conditions| GMAT Club Rules| Contact| Sitemap

Powered by phpBB © phpBB Group and phpBB SEO

Kindly note that the GMAT® test is a registered trademark of the Graduate Management Admission Council®, and this site has neither been reviewed nor endorsed by GMAC®.