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# The value of a product is determined by the ratio of its

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Manager
Joined: 31 Aug 2006
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27 Oct 2006, 08:07
(E)
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29 Oct 2006, 11:33
I go with E as well
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29 Oct 2006, 13:41
Senior Manager
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29 Oct 2006, 14:12
maybe c ?
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29 Oct 2006, 14:18
jitu_ch wrote:
Hmmm....I seem to disagree with the analysis of points B and C mentioned by u2lover:
----
(B) certain segments... don't need to read further... we care about all consumers
(C) again same as B
(D) completely out of scope
----
If you read further, it is "different segments of the population of consumers" - so here we are in fact talking about the consumer population only...

I do not know whether i am on thinking on the same lines as you guys, but consider this explanation:

I choose C.
Since "Competing products.....try to appeal to different segments of the population of consumers" may suggest that the product would come under 2 sections of consumers....
- one type who would be willing to pay any price for high quality (1st part of argument satisfied) say for e.g. the rich ppl
- and one type who would be interested in lower prices of the product not caring about the quality as such. (2nd part of argument satisfied) say for e.g. the poor ppl...

Thus, in both the cases Higher quality and Lower prices makes the consumer select the product by making the product a hit in different segments.

What say guys?? Is it correct reasoning...or am I missing some point here???

I agree with Jitu's line of reasoning, E seems to be more of an assumption and A can be derived from the argument itself. However C strengthens the argument by specifying that due to different segments of customers a product can be made more competetive by either increasing the quality or by reducing the price depending on which segment the product falls under
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29 Oct 2006, 14:22
mailtheguru wrote:
OA is E.

I think old_dream_1976's explanation makes a lot of sense. The theoritical quality of a product need not match the perception of the customers. Making it explicit strengthens the argument.

but isn't E an assumption then ? so are we saying that by explicitly specifying the assumption we are strengthening the argument ? I have seen some q's like this and in most cases all ans's look equally bad...could someone please explain ?
29 Oct 2006, 14:22

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