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Theater Critic: The play La Finestrina, now at Central

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Theater Critic: The play La Finestrina, now at Central [#permalink] New post 12 Dec 2010, 23:07
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Theater Critic: The play La Finestrina, now at Central Theater, was written in Italy in the eighteenth century. The
director claims that this production is as similar to the original production as is possible in a modern theater.
Although the actor who plays Harlequin the clown gives a performance very reminiscent of the twentieth-century
American comedian Groucho Marx, Marx’s comic style was very much within the comic acting tradition that had
begun in sixteenth-century Italy.
The considerations given best serve as part of an argument that
(A) modern audiences would fi nd it hard to tolerate certain characteristics of a historically accurate
performance of an eighteenth-century play
(B) Groucho Marx once performed the part of the character Harlequin in La Finestrina
(C) in the United States the training of actors in the twentieth century is based on principles that do not differ
radically from those that underlay the training of actors in eighteenth-century Italy
(D) the performance of the actor who plays Harlequin in La Finestrina does not serve as evidence against the
director’s claim
(E) the director of La Finestrina must have advised the actor who plays Harlequin to model his performance on
comic performances of Groucho Marx




can anyone give a simple stucture of this argument?
which is premise, which is conclusion?
how can i analyse the logical chain?
thanks so much
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Re: The play La Finestrina_OG [#permalink] New post 13 Dec 2010, 03:37
I got this wrong.
I am confused abt the conclusion.
The critic says "Although the actor who plays Harlequin the clown gives a performance very reminiscent of the twentieth-century
American comedian Groucho Marx, Marx’s comic style was very much within the comic acting tradition that had
begun in sixteenth-century Italy."
This statement seems to convey that "the actor did not prerform according to the traditions prevalent in the 18th century"
Although the actor gives a performance reminiscent of the 20th century,the performance was not in keeping with the traditions of the 18th century.
The critics conclusion seems to be implicit.I dont think he agress with the director's claim. then How can D be the answer . D seems to be the opposite of what the critic seems to be conveying
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Re: The play La Finestrina_OG [#permalink] New post 13 Dec 2010, 06:07
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courtdancer wrote:
Theater Critic: The play La Finestrina, now at Central Theater, was written in Italy in the eighteenth century. The
director claims that this production is as similar to the original production as is possible in a modern theater.
Although the actor who plays Harlequin the clown gives a performance very reminiscent of the twentieth-century
American comedian Groucho Marx, Marx’s comic style was very much within the comic acting tradition that had
begun in sixteenth-century Italy.
The considerations given best serve as part of an argument that
(A) modern audiences would fi nd it hard to tolerate certain characteristics of a historically accurate
performance of an eighteenth-century play
(B) Groucho Marx once performed the part of the character Harlequin in La Finestrina
(C) in the United States the training of actors in the twentieth century is based on principles that do not differ
radically from those that underlay the training of actors in eighteenth-century Italy
(D) the performance of the actor who plays Harlequin in La Finestrina does not serve as evidence against the
director’s claim
(E) the director of La Finestrina must have advised the actor who plays Harlequin to model his performance on
comic performances of Groucho Marx




can anyone give a simple stucture of this argument?
which is premise, which is conclusion?
how can i analyse the logical chain?
thanks so much


Simple terms. A play that was staged in the 18th century is running in a theatre. The director says "I have tried to retain max originality that can be done in a modern theatre." But one actor(comedian) is imitating styles of a 20th century actor.

So there is a direct contradiction saying that 18th century originality is lost

But the 20th century actors style dates to the 16th century, which means that the comedian's act does not contradict the say of the director, as the comedian is imitating the 16th century style.

Hope this helps
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Re: The play La Finestrina_OG [#permalink] New post 13 Dec 2010, 06:14
mailnavin1 wrote:
courtdancer wrote:
Theater Critic: The play La Finestrina, now at Central Theater, was written in Italy in the eighteenth century. The
director claims that this production is as similar to the original production as is possible in a modern theater.
Although the actor who plays Harlequin the clown gives a performance very reminiscent of the twentieth-century
American comedian Groucho Marx, Marx’s comic style was very much within the comic acting tradition that had
begun in sixteenth-century Italy.
The considerations given best serve as part of an argument that
(A) modern audiences would fi nd it hard to tolerate certain characteristics of a historically accurate
performance of an eighteenth-century play
(B) Groucho Marx once performed the part of the character Harlequin in La Finestrina
(C) in the United States the training of actors in the twentieth century is based on principles that do not differ
radically from those that underlay the training of actors in eighteenth-century Italy
(D) the performance of the actor who plays Harlequin in La Finestrina does not serve as evidence against the
director’s claim
(E) the director of La Finestrina must have advised the actor who plays Harlequin to model his performance on
comic performances of Groucho Marx




can anyone give a simple stucture of this argument?
which is premise, which is conclusion?
how can i analyse the logical chain?
thanks so much


Simple terms. A play that was staged in the 18th century is running in a theatre. The director says "I have tried to retain max originality that can be done in a modern theatre." But one actor(comedian) is imitating styles of a 20th century actor.

So there is a direct contradiction saying that 18th century originality is lost

But the 20th century actors style dates to the 16th century, which means that the comedian's act does not contradict the say of the director, as the comedian is imitating the 16th century style.

Hope this helps

So is the critic supporting the directors claim or criticizing the director's claim.
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Re: The play La Finestrina_OG [#permalink] New post 13 Dec 2010, 06:37
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Re: The play La Finestrina_OG [#permalink] New post 13 Dec 2010, 06:54
mundasingh123 wrote:
mailnavin1 wrote:
courtdancer wrote:
Theater Critic: The play La Finestrina, now at Central Theater, was written in Italy in the eighteenth century. The
director claims that this production is as similar to the original production as is possible in a modern theater.
Although the actor who plays Harlequin the clown gives a performance very reminiscent of the twentieth-century
American comedian Groucho Marx, Marx’s comic style was very much within the comic acting tradition that had
begun in sixteenth-century Italy.
The considerations given best serve as part of an argument that
(A) modern audiences would fi nd it hard to tolerate certain characteristics of a historically accurate
performance of an eighteenth-century play
(B) Groucho Marx once performed the part of the character Harlequin in La Finestrina
(C) in the United States the training of actors in the twentieth century is based on principles that do not differ
radically from those that underlay the training of actors in eighteenth-century Italy
(D) the performance of the actor who plays Harlequin in La Finestrina does not serve as evidence against the
director’s claim
(E) the director of La Finestrina must have advised the actor who plays Harlequin to model his performance on
comic performances of Groucho Marx




can anyone give a simple stucture of this argument?
which is premise, which is conclusion?
how can i analyse the logical chain?
thanks so much


Simple terms. A play that was staged in the 18th century is running in a theatre. The director says "I have tried to retain max originality that can be done in a modern theatre." But one actor(comedian) is imitating styles of a 20th century actor.

So there is a direct contradiction saying that 18th century originality is lost

But the 20th century actors style dates to the 16th century, which means that the comedian's act does not contradict the say of the director, as the comedian is imitating the 16th century style.

Hope this helps

So is the critic supporting the directors claim or criticizing the director's claim.


See the word Although, Critic provides an evidence that support the directors claim.
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Re: The play La Finestrina_OG [#permalink] New post 13 Dec 2010, 12:22
mailnavin1 wrote:
mundasingh123 wrote:
[So is the critic supporting the directors claim or criticizing the director's claim.


See the word Although, Critic provides an evidence that support the directors claim.

I assumed all a critic is supposed to do is criticize
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Re: The play La Finestrina_OG [#permalink] New post 13 Dec 2010, 19:43
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Not necessary, a person who identifies merits and detest error and points them out on a work of art is a critic.

Like the Anton Ego in Ratatouille :lol:
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Re: The play La Finestrina_OG [#permalink] New post 20 Feb 2011, 11:08
geesh, nice dude.+1 mailnavin1
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Re: The play La Finestrina_OG [#permalink] New post 20 Feb 2011, 18:13
I chose D.
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Re: The play La Finestrina_OG [#permalink] New post 20 Feb 2011, 19:40
(B) is very funny. GMAT writers are not the very best !
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Re: The play La Finestrina_OG [#permalink] New post 27 Apr 2011, 06:52
these questions are taking quite some time to think . D is the answer but i took 3 minutes to crack this one :(
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Re: Theater Critic: The play La Finestrina, now at Central [#permalink] New post 25 Mar 2013, 10:51
This is an inference question. Ans D it is the rest all cannot be concluded from the given argument.
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Re: Theater Critic: The play La Finestrina, now at Central [#permalink] New post 13 Apr 2013, 07:09
I would go for D -

Original play - 18th century
Groucho's acting - 20th century but technique from 16th century
Director wants - a Modern take on an old play retaining the original style.
Actor - Uses Marx's 16th century acting.

So, since the actor apes a 20th century actor (Groucho), who actually uses 16th century acting, the actor is,in a way, using older techniques which are closer to how the original play might have been performed.

Groucho (20th century actor) -> uses 16th century acting
Actor -> uses Groucho's 16th century acting

Director Wins the argument.. :wink: :wink:
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Re: Theater Critic: The play La Finestrina, now at Central [#permalink] New post 24 May 2013, 06:14
(A) modern audiences would fi nd it hard to tolerate certain characteristics of a historically accurate
performance of an eighteenth-century play

Tolerance aspect never mentioned...Incorrect.

(B) Groucho Marx once performed the part of the character Harlequin in La Finestrina

Never mentioned that Marx played the part of the charac. Harlequin....Incorrect.

(C) in the United States the training of actors in the twentieth century is based on principles that do not differ
radically from those that underlay the training of actors in eighteenth-century Italy

Never mentioned.....Incorrect.

(D) the performance of the actor who plays Harlequin in La Finestrina does not serve as evidence against the
director’s claim

Correct....could be inferred....the actor acts like Marx...but no mention is he really acts well like the character...so no evidnce!

(E) the director of La Finestrina must have advised the actor who plays Harlequin to model his performance on
comic performances of Groucho Marx

Couldn't be infrd if the director ever advised....Incorrect
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Re: Theater Critic: The play La Finestrina, now at Central [#permalink] New post 29 May 2014, 01:19
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Re: Theater Critic: The play La Finestrina, now at Central   [#permalink] 29 May 2014, 01:19
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