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Thirty years ago, the percentage of the British people who

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Thirty years ago, the percentage of the British people who [#permalink] New post 24 Jan 2006, 14:21
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Thirty years ago, the percentage of the British people who vacationed in foreign countries was very small compared with the large percentage of the British population who travel abroad for vacations now. Foreign travel is, and always has been, expensive from Britain. Therefore, British people must have, on average, more money to spend on vacations now than they did 30 years ago.
The argument requires assuming which one of the following?
(A) If foreign travel had been less expensive 30 years ago, British people would still not have had enough money to take vacation abroad.
(B) If travel to Britain were less expensive, more people of other countries would travel to Britain for their vacations.
(C) If the percentage of British people vacationing abroad was lower 30 years ago, then the British people of 30 years ago must have spent more money on domestic vacations.
(D) If more of the British people 30 years ago had had enough money to vacation abroad, more would have done so.
(E) If British people are now wealthier than they were 30 years ago, then they must have more money to spend on vacations now than they did 30 years ago.
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 [#permalink] New post 24 Jan 2006, 14:54
Arrived at E by POE. I may be wrong.

I think this might be one of those if X then Y type of CRs. I don't like'm
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 [#permalink] New post 24 Jan 2006, 15:55
I go for D.
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 [#permalink] New post 24 Jan 2006, 17:11
Yeah, I thinks D.
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 [#permalink] New post 24 Jan 2006, 20:30
I arrive at D by negation..

If more of the British people 30 years ago had had enough money to vacation abroad, more would NOT have done so

This clearly means that 30 years back were not interested in vacations. So its not the money factor, its something else...Hence it takes apart the argument
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 [#permalink] New post 24 Jan 2006, 22:24
I ll go with D
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 [#permalink] New post 24 Jan 2006, 22:27
One More vote for D as explained by andy_gr8
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 [#permalink] New post 25 Jan 2006, 12:42
D as well ... its assumed that if more people had more money 30 yrs ago they would have used those to travel ....because now its concluded that more people are travelling outside because they have more money ...

bottomline conclusion more money more travel ...

hence assumption earlier had lesser money so lesser travel
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 [#permalink] New post 25 Jan 2006, 13:30
I was so happy to see D before me. I feel :-D
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 [#permalink] New post 25 Jan 2006, 20:43
Sure, (D). Who`s to say that 30 years ago the British wouldn`t have spent their extra income on clothing, motorcycles, etc?
  [#permalink] 25 Jan 2006, 20:43
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