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Re: In economics, the concept of propensity to consume refers to the pro [#permalink]
Sprincejindal wrote:
nairaneesh wrote:
Please explain how C is a valid answer.
I am confused because MPC is applicable only when additional income comes in to play.

Read this line in the second paragraph - "Short-term decreases in income do not lead to reductions in consumption, because people reduce savings to stabilize consumption."
Earlier, if Income was $1000 and MPC was 0.72 (consumption 1000* 0.72 = $720), and now if the income falls to $800, the consumption remains same, then the MPC increases to 0.9 (720/800).

Hope this helps!


I agree with what you say but the very definition of MPC is that additional income that the family consumes. So if there is a decrease in income ,the MPC will be negative no ?

I think if the answer choice were to be rephrased, Decreases in income generally lead to short-run increases in propensity to consume. Choice c would be right.
:?
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Re: In economics, the concept of propensity to consume refers to the pro [#permalink]
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goforgmat wrote:
Sprincejindal wrote:
nairaneesh wrote:
Please explain how C is a valid answer.
I am confused because MPC is applicable only when additional income comes in to play.

Read this line in the second paragraph - "Short-term decreases in income do not lead to reductions in consumption, because people reduce savings to stabilize consumption."
Earlier, if Income was $1000 and MPC was 0.72 (consumption 1000* 0.72 = $720), and now if the income falls to $800, the consumption remains same, then the MPC increases to 0.9 (720/800).

Hope this helps!


I agree with what you say but the very definition of MPC is that additional income that the family consumes. So if there is a decrease in income ,the MPC will be negative no ?

I think if the answer choice were to be rephrased, Decreases in income generally lead to short-run increases in propensity to consume. Choice c would be right.
:?


MPC is not the additional income that a family consumes, but it is the proportion of that additional income that a family consumes. It is the ratio of changes in consumtion to changes in income. So when the income (Denominator) reduces, but the consumption (Numerator) remains the same, then the MPC (Ratio) increases.
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Re: In economics, the concept of propensity to consume refers to the pro [#permalink]
nairaneesh wrote:
Please explain how C is a valid answer.
I am confused because MPC is applicable only when additional income comes in to play.

Read this line in the second paragraph - "Short-term decreases in income do not lead to reductions in consumption, because people reduce savings to stabilize consumption."
Earlier, if Income was $1000 and MPC was 0.72 (consumption 1000* 0.72 = $720), and now if the income falls to $800, the consumption remains same, then the MPC increases to 0.9 (720/800).

Hope this helps![/quote]

I agree with what you say but the very definition of MPC is that additional income that the family consumes. So if there is a decrease in income ,the MPC will be negative no ?

I think if the answer choice were to be rephrased, Decreases in income generally lead to short-run increases in propensity to consume. Choice c would be right.
:?[/quote]



But inst the MPC calculated on the additional income and not the total income. So if the current income is say, €1000, what can be calculated is the APC. If the income increases by say, €200, then, MPC would be calculable only in the €200 and not €1200. This is what I am inferring.

I understand this is not the learning from this GMAT question, but only curios to understand the solution. :)

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Re: In economics, the concept of propensity to consume refers to the pro [#permalink]
Please add more questions.
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Re: In economics, the concept of propensity to consume refers to the pro [#permalink]
I am confused among options B, C and D

Quote:
Read this line in the second paragraph - "Short-term decreases in income do not lead to reductions in consumption, because people reduce savings to stabilize consumption."
Earlier, if Income was $1000 and MPC was 0.72 (consumption 1000* 0.72 = $720), and now if the income falls to $800, the consumption remains same, then the MPC increases to 0.9 (720/800).
As said by Sprincejindal above, I understand why option C is correct.

Quote:
However, the distinction between permanent and temporary changes in income is often subtle in practice, and it is often quite difficult to designate a particular change in income as being permanent or temporary.
From the quote above, in option B, the passage suggests that it is quite difficult to designate a particular change, but doesn't say that it is the household that are unable to designate a change in income. Hence option B is also ruled out.

Quote:
This implies that the Keynesian multiplier – the measure of that consumption’s impact on additional consumption in the marketplace – should be larger in response to permanent changes in income than it is in response to temporary changes in income (though the earliest Keynesian analyses ignored these subtleties).
. But when it comes to option D, according to the sentence above, we see that the earlier Keynesian analyses did not account for differences in permanent changes in income and temporary changes in income. And these income changes affect the MPC. Hence shouldn't option D be right?

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