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Re: The nature of English literature reflects the rich and diverse vocabul [#permalink]
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A. The origin of English played a role in shaping English literature. --- not sure if it is true but cant eliminate it either at first glance , lets keep it.

B. The vocabulary of the Anglo-Saxon language was richer than that of the French language. --- not sufficient info provided. may be or may be not.

C. The vocabulary of English is larger than the vocabulary of French. --- not sufficient info provided. may be or may be not.

D. Simple and clear literature cannot be written in a language with a rich and diverse vocabulary. ---- too extreme to be true

E. English literature and French literature have had little infulence on one another. --- wrong .... English is influenced from french, the other way is not true.

(A) seems the best answer among all.
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Re: The nature of English literature reflects the rich and diverse vocabul [#permalink]
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IMO A
Since the first line says 'resulted from' dual Lang. (I. E the origin)

Posted from my mobile device
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Re: The nature of English literature reflects the rich and diverse vocabul [#permalink]
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A. The origin of English played a role in shaping English literature.: CAN BE INFERRED FROM FIRST SENTENCE. A CONNECTION IS WELL ESTABLISHED BETWEEN ENGLISH LITERATURE AND ENGLISH LANGUAGE.

B. The vocabulary of the Anglo-Saxon language was richer than that of the French language.: IRRELEVANT COMPARISON, NOT DISCUSSED

C. The vocabulary of English is larger than the vocabulary of French.: SAME AS B, CANNOT PASS FACT TEST

D. Simple and clear literature cannot be written in a languae with a rich and diverse vocabulary.: TOO EXTREME

E. English literature and French literature have had little infulence on one another.: OPPOSITE
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Re: The nature of English literature reflects the rich and diverse vocabul [#permalink]
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Awaiting OA. IMO answer should be A

The nature of English literature reflects the rich and diverse vocabulary of the English language, which resulted from the dual influence of the Anglo-Saxon and, later, French languages. The French language, though, is a direct descendant of Latin, with few traces of the Celtic language spoken by the pre-Roman inhabitants of the area: the hallmark of French literature is its simplicity and clarity.

Which one of the following can be most reasonably inferred from the information above?

A. The origin of English played a role in shaping English literature. --Correct. The nature of English literature reflects the richness and diversity in language. Diversity and richness was derived from French and Anglo-Saxon languages. So we can say that the origin has had some impact on the English literature.

B. The vocabulary of the Anglo-Saxon language was richer than that of the French language. --We can't say that. These two languages are different and we can't comment on the vocabulary of either language.

C. The vocabulary of English is larger than the vocabulary of French. --We can't say that. These two languages are different and we can't comment on the vocabulary of either language. Remember, entire French language is not the sub set of English.

D. Simple and clear literature cannot be written in a languae with a rich and diverse vocabulary. --Exaggerated statement

E. English literature and French literature have had little infulence on one another. --We can't say from the argument whether English has had any influence on French literature.
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Re: The nature of English literature reflects the rich and diverse vocabul [#permalink]
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IMO B. and I think I am pretty sure about it. But seeing all the different types of answers, am a little confused.
Please post the OA.
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Re: The nature of English literature reflects the rich and diverse vocabul [#permalink]
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Puja priya wrote:
IMO B. and I think I am pretty sure about it. But seeing all the different types of answers, am a little confused.
Please post the OA.


At first I thought B was the better answer. Looking again however, A is simpler and more elegant as a solution. The problems with both B and C are that they both make large logic leaps...which in assumption type questions is usually incorrect. Hope this helps.
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Re: The nature of English literature reflects the rich and diverse vocabul [#permalink]
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Mrinal Lather wrote:
IMO, The answer is C.

Combining the information provided in the first sentence, which mentions that the vocabulary of English has been influenced by both Anglo-Saxon and French languages. Hence, it can be correctly inferred that the vocabulary of English is greater than the vocabulary of French.

None of the other options can be correctly inferred from the passage.


C cannot be inferred from the passage and here's why. It says that English was INFLUENCED BY French and Anglo-saxon, it isn't a UNION (in mathematical terms) of Anglo-Saxon and French. It could have taken a few words/phrases from French and Anglo-Saxon and still have been smaller in corpus than the entirety of French language.

In other words, it CANNOT be inferred that "English = All of Anglo-Saxon + All of French
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Re: The nature of English literature reflects the rich and diverse vocabul [#permalink]
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The nature of English literature reflects the rich and diverse vocabulary of the English language, which resulted from the dual influence of the Anglo-Saxon and, later, French languages. The French language, though, is a direct descendant of Latin, with few traces of the Celtic language spoken by the pre-Roman inhabitants of the area: the hallmark of French literature is its simplicity and clarity.

Which one of the following can be most reasonably inferred from the information above?

A. The origin of English played a role in shaping English literature. - Best choice as it is clearly mentioned that English literature reflects the rich and diverse vocabulary of the English language.

B. The vocabulary of the Anglo-Saxon language was richer than that of the French language. - It is nowhere mentioned that one vocabulary is richer than another so eliminated

C. The vocabulary of English is larger than the vocabulary of French. - Size of vocabulary is also nowhere compared in the passage so eliminated

D. Simple and clear literature cannot be written in a language with a rich and diverse vocabulary. - Out of Scope

E. English literature and French literature have had little influence on one another - Nowhere it is mentioned that English and French literatures have influence on each other. Only thing mentioned is they have a little impact so eliminated

Hence best choice Option A

Hope its clear puja priya
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Re: The nature of English literature reflects the rich and diverse vocabul [#permalink]
I chose option D as my answer. The passage was basically talking about the fact that English literature resulted from 2 different influences. It did not talk about the role played by English literature. Hence, was unable to understand why option A is the correct answer. Could someone help to shed some light on this? Thanks
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Re: The nature of English literature reflects the rich and diverse vocabul [#permalink]
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Leonaann wrote:
I chose option D as my answer. The passage was basically talking about the fact that English literature resulted from 2 different influences. It did not talk about the role played by English literature. Hence, was unable to understand why option A is the correct answer. Could someone help to shed some light on this? Thanks

Take a look at this post, which addresses both (A) and (D), and let me know if you have any lingering questions!
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Re: The nature of English literature reflects the rich and diverse vocabul [#permalink]
Dear GMATNinja,

It may be very basic question ,but can you please clarify my doubt.
I chose Option C. Because I thought English itself combined the vocabulary of the Anglo-Saxon language as well as the French language ( which could be implied from the argument). So the "Set of English words" are greater than subset of French and Anglo Saxon. Thus the vocabulary of English is larger than the vocabulary of French.

I discarded Option A because it is talking about the shaping of whole English literature . I thought the given information in the argument is not enough to comment on the shaping of English literature. We need to know more about the history of English literature . So it could be out of scope .
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Re: The nature of English literature reflects the rich and diverse vocabul [#permalink]
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prasunsaha3434 wrote:
Dear GMATNinja,

It may be very basic question ,but can you please clarify my doubt.
I chose Option C. Because I thought English itself combined the vocabulary of the Anglo-Saxon language as well as the French language ( which could be implied from the argument). So the "Set of English words" are greater than subset of French and Anglo Saxon. Thus the vocabulary of English is larger than the vocabulary of French.

I discarded Option A because it is talking about the shaping of whole English literature . I thought the given information in the argument is not enough to comment on the shaping of English literature. We need to know more about the history of English literature . So it could be out of scope .

We are told that the English language was INFLUENCED by "the Anglo-Saxon and, later, French languages," but that doesn't mean that the English language is simply the "sum" of all Anglo-Saxon words and all French words. English could in fact have fewer words than either of the languages that influenced it.

By telling us that English "resulted from the dual influence of the Anglo-Saxon and, later, French languages," the passage does in fact give us some information about how the language was shaped. We don't know the entire history of the language, but we know SOMETHING about its origin: it was influenced by those two languages. This aspect of the language's origin resulted in English's "rich and diverse vocabulary", which is in turn reflected in the literature.

So we can absolutely say that "the origin of English played a role in shaping English literature" (choice A).

I hope that helps!
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Re: The nature of English literature reflects the rich and diverse vocabul [#permalink]
I don't think that influence should be construed as origination.

Since English got influenced by two languages, whether we can interpret that English was originated from them, as mentioned in option A ?
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Re: The nature of English literature reflects the rich and diverse vocabul [#permalink]
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souvik101990 wrote:
The nature of English literature reflects the rich and diverse vocabulary of the English language, which resulted from the dual influence of the Anglo-Saxon and, later, French languages. The French language, though, is a direct descendant of Latin, with few traces of the Celtic language spoken by the pre-Roman inhabitants of the area: the hallmark of French literature is its simplicity and clarity.

Which one of the following can be most reasonably inferred from the information above?


A. The origin of English played a role in shaping English literature.

B. The vocabulary of the Anglo-Saxon language was richer than that of the French language.

C. The vocabulary of English is larger than the vocabulary of French.

D. Simple and clear literature cannot be written in a language with a rich and diverse vocabulary.

E. English literature and French literature have had little influence on one another.


I didn't find anything negative about option A rather there is information which strengthen option A.
B. It is not said in the passage that the vocabulary of the Anglo-Saxon language was richer than that of the French language. OUT
C. The passage only said English literature has a rich and diverse vocabulary. It's not said that French has so. OUT.
D. Rather opposite OUT
E. The passage said the French have an impact on English but it's extent is not defined. OUT

The answer is A.
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Re: The nature of English literature reflects the rich and diverse vocabul [#permalink]
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Re: The nature of English literature reflects the rich and diverse vocabul [#permalink]
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