The argument's conclusion is based on causality that the test is causing these accidents. ( Casually speaking)
Now, the argument simply compares this to another city where there is no test and no accident.
Basically here, we need to challenge the test. So how possibly can we challenge the test,
in light of given information that in a city where there is no test of parking no accident is there? What if the city in which parking test is not there but parking exists and still the accident is NEGLIGIBLE, our belief gets bolstered that there is something in the test that is leading to these accidents. On the other hand, in the other city, the parallel parking itself is not present then obviously in that city there is NO parallel parking, then reasoning the conclusion on the basis that in other city if there is no parking test there is negligible accident becomes QUESTIONABLE.
So our answer should revolve around this scenario.
A. The basis of the argument is about current context. This option would have been valid and useful if we knew about the accident rates in the past. But no such information is given, so knowing whether it was revoked or not would not help evaluate. ELIMINATE this answer.
B. I had a doubt regarding "related accidents". But even if we assume that it is parallel-parking related accidents, then it is applicable to BOTH the countries. When we say that THESE ACCIDENTS occured WHEN there was DIM light and drivers could not see properly, then we draw a correlation, which might be thought of a CONTRIBUTING cause. The causality of the test and the accidents is not questioned.
Also the related accidents could be "parking-related" accidents. If that is the case, we clearly can eliminate this because the scope of the argument is parallel parking related accidents.
Even if we apply VARIANCE test and say that primarily they occured during day. So we eliminate a cause, then we have a belief that it could be because of these tests, and if we say YES, it happened during night, then also our claim is strengthened because the night factor is constant, and both place will have it.
C. This is also not our answer, however I was stuck at this for a while, because this option says that the driver was ATTEMPTING the parallel parking. Now there could again be two causes to the accident here- 1) The driver himself/herself was at fault 2) The faulty test could have led to it ( because we know that the test's country has higher rate). Since, this option still does not question the causality of the test, we can ignore this.
D - This is possibly the answer. Because we know that in a country where test is NOT there and yet people park and still the accidents are negligible, then it gives us a sort of belief that the test might have caused. And if they don't park parallely, then obviiously the accidents would be negligible. Then saying that the test is not valid is a bit questionable. Based on this reasoning, I marked this answer. I HOPE I AM CORRECT
E. Even if they are not, per the reasoning the causality stands. And if it is, well the causality is strengthened. This option fails the variance test. So I eliminated it.
Regards,
Rishav