Can any one explain the logic for 26th one? I am getting no clue why the author quoted the word...
The line 44 says "Psychohistorians, convinced of the absolute rightness of their own theories, are also convinced that theirs is the “deepest” explanation of any event, that other explanations fall short of the truth."
As per my understanding, in putting the word deepest in quotes, the author is critical of the Psychohistorians ways and thinks they may not be right in assuming that their theories are absolutely right. Hence, she is, in a way, questioning the accuracy of their claims.
26. The author of the passage puts the word “deepest” (line 44) in quotation marks most probably in order to
(A) signal her reservations about the accuracy of psychohistorians’ claims for their work
(B) draw attention to a contradiction in the psychohistorians’ method
(C) emphasize the major difference between the traditional historians’ method and that of psychohistorians
(D) disassociate her opinion of the psychohistorians’ claims from her opinion of their method
(E) question the usefulness of psychohistorians’ insights into traditional historical scholarship