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When hypnotized subjects are told that they are deaf and are

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When hypnotized subjects are told that they are deaf and are [#permalink] New post 24 Aug 2012, 02:14
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When hypnotized subjects are told that they are deaf and are then asked whether they can hear the hypnotist, they reply, “No.” Some theorists try to explain this result by arguing that the selves of hypnotized subjects are dissociated into separate parts, and that the part that is deaf is dissociated from the part that replies.
Which of the following challenges indicates the most serious weakness in the attempted explanation described above?
(A) Why does the part that replies not answer, “Yes”?
(B) Why are the observed facts in need of any special explanation?
(C) Why do the subjects appear to accept the hypnotist’s suggestion that they are deaf?
(D) Why do hypnotized subjects all respond the same way in the situation described?
(E) Why are the separate parts of the self the same for all subjects?
[Reveal] Spoiler: OA

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Concentration: International Business, Marketing
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Re: When hypnotized subjects are told that they are deaf [#permalink] New post 24 Aug 2012, 03:57
questions are a bit easy ..
are you sure about the official answers you have given..
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Re: When hypnotized subjects are told that they are deaf and are [#permalink] New post 19 Jan 2015, 06:05
Hello from the GMAT Club VerbalBot!

Thanks to another GMAT Club member, I have just discovered this valuable topic, yet it had no discussion for over a year. I am now bumping it up - doing my job. I think you may find it valuable (esp those replies with Kudos).

Want to see all other topics I dig out? Follow me (click follow button on profile). You will receive a summary of all topics I bump in your profile area as well as via email.
Re: When hypnotized subjects are told that they are deaf and are   [#permalink] 19 Jan 2015, 06:05
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