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When hypnotized subjects are told that they are deaf and are [#permalink]
16 May 2004, 09:55
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When hypnotized subjects are told that they are deaf and are then asked whether they can hear the hypnotist, they reply, "No." some theories try to explain this result by arguing that the selves of hypnotized subjects are dissociated into separate parts, and that the part that is deaf is dissociated from the aprt that replies.
which of the following challenges indicates the most serious weakness in the attempted explanation described above?
(A) why does the part that replies not answer, "Yes?"
Could anyone explain the question and tell me why?
I suggest you post other choices also. Many times process of elimination helps in determining the answer. It is impossible to know the midset of the person who composed this question.
My explanation for your question is as follows
In practice the hypnotized people should not reply at all any questions if they are truly hypnotized. Since the person answers it is possible that he/she is not under hypnosis (faking it) or he/she always answers no to any question.
The scientists are saying that the person is split into two pieces, one piece is deaf and the other replies. Since these two pieces are disconnected probability that the reply is yes is equal to no If the reply is consistently no then it is not known whether the people under hypnosis always say no or the deaf part is communicating something to the replying part. In either case the hypothesis does not hold good.
(A) why does the part that replies not answer, "YES"
(B)Why are the ovserved facts in need of any special explanation?
(C) Why do the subjects appear to accept the hypnotist's suggestion that they are deaf?
(D)Why do hypnotized subjects all respond the same way in the situation described?
(E) why are the separate parts of the self the same for all subjects?