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Wirth: All efforts to identify a gene responsible for [#permalink]
03 May 2004, 18:33
50% (02:49) correct
50% (01:21) wrong based on 2 sessions
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All efforts to identify a gene responsible for predisposing people to manic depression have failed. In fact, nearly all researchers now agree that there is no "manic depression gene". Therefore, if these researchers are right, any claim that some people are genetically predisposed to manic depression is simply false.
I do not dispute your evidence, but I take issue with your conclusion. Many of the researchers you refer to have found evidence that a set of several genes is involved and that complex interactions among these genes produce a predisposition to manic depression.
Which one of the following most accurately expresses Chang's criticism of Wirth's argument?
A. it presupposes only one possibility where more than one exists.
B. it depends on seperate pieces of evidence that contradict each other.
C. it relies on the opinion of the experts in an area outside the expert's field of expertise.
D. it disallows in principle any evidence that would disconfirm its conclusion.
E. it treats something that is merely unlikely as though it were impossible.
I would go with D on this one. Chang basically says the Wirth's conclusion is wrong because although there may be no genes attributed to manic depression, it is the interaction between genes which cause manic depression. Therefore, since a body is practically made up of genes, the conclusion that certain people will be predisposed for manic depression will always hold because there will always be some interaction between the concerned genes.
B is false because there is no contradiction involved here. The fact that there are no manic depression genes does not preclude the possibility that it is the interaction between those genes which will cause manic depression _________________
Wirth considered only one possibility, that a single gene is responsible for manic depression, and he reached the conclusion that people are not genetically predisposed to manic depression based on this one scenario. He never considered other possibilities.
Chang challenges his conclusion by presenting a different scenario.
Well i believe A is the best choice, because by arguing the way Chang did, his argument assumes/shows that:
GENES is the only possible factor of manic depression when totally disallowing the possibility that Wirth's argument, which argues that manic depression is not caused by genes but by other factors that are still unknown, is INCORRECT. (and the fact that other factors have not been found leads Chang to believe that Genes is the only factor).
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