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Women generally do not receive lower pay for doing precisely [#permalink]
01 Jun 2004, 09:07
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Women generally do not receive lower pay for doing precisely the same work as men. Rather, regardless of their skills, women have disproportionately high representation in jobs traditionally paying lower wages. If Jobs paid according to the skills and education required by them, this de facto segregation would not exist.
If the statements above are true, which of the following is most likely to be true?
(A)Some jobs performed by more men than women pay higher wages than jobs requiring comparable skills, but performed by more women than men.
(B)Regardless of sex or occupation, a person should be paid an amount sufficient to support his or her household.
(C)As men enter a field, earnings tend to rise, not only for men but also for the women in the field.
(D) Little percentage gain has occured in the number of women holding jobs traditionally held by men.
(E)Generally accepted methods are available for evaluating the level of skill required in, and hence the appropriate pay for, any job traditionally held by women.
Last edited by chunjuwu on 02 Jun 2004, 06:47, edited 1 time in total.
It has to be (E), no doubt sentence talks about more women, but it doesn't say anything about more men, so (A) is not correct.
Also apply the rule of negation on (E), and you will see if the (E) is false then author's argument will loose ground. If there are no means to measure the level of skill then you cannot pay according to the skills.