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VP
Joined: 26 Apr 2004
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Location: Taiwan
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xyz <> 0, is x (y + z) = 0? (1) y + z = y + z (2) x + [#permalink]
 21 Jan 2005, 10:18
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xyz <> 0, is x (y + z) = 0?
(1) ¦ y + z ¦ = ¦ y ¦ + ¦ z ¦
(2) ¦ x + y ¦ = ¦ x ¦ + ¦ y ¦
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Director
Joined: 31 Aug 2004
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I pick A, then we know that y <> -z
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Current Student
Joined: 28 Dec 2004
Posts: 3439
Location: New York City
Schools: Wharton'11 HBS'12
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A it is...
twixit's explanation is good...we know, x,y,z are not equal to zero...all we need to check for is, if y+z is not equal to zero...statement I doest that.
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SVP
Joined: 18 Nov 2004
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"A" it is....same explanation as above.....y and z has to be of same sign for the statement 1 to be true and they can't be 0.
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Director
Joined: 07 Jun 2004
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from solving the stem we get y = -z
A will be suff
B insuff
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VP
Joined: 27 Dec 2004
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Pardon me for being really slow to this, but do you guys mind breaking this down further by substituting with actual numbers please?  Please ! Thanks
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SVP
Joined: 03 Jan 2005
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(I) means y and z have same sign, so that the absolute value of their sum is equal to the sum of their absolute values. In other words y+z can't be zero unless both are zero, but the question has xyz<>0. Therefore we would be able to determine that x(y+z)<>0.
This is why I is sufficient.
(II) By the same reason we get x+y<>0, but we don't know if y+z=0, so not sufficient to tell if x(y+z)=0.
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Senior Manager
Joined: 19 Sep 2004
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hi Cn somebody tell me what does <> sign means??? I am lost.
Thanks
Saurabh Malpani
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