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SVP
Joined: 05 Jul 2006
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xyz <> 0, is x (y + z) = 0? (1) y + z = y + z (2) x + [#permalink]
 22 Oct 2006, 16:48
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xyz <> 0, is x (y + z) = 0?
(1) ¦ y + z ¦ = ¦ y ¦ + ¦ z ¦
(2) ¦ x + y ¦ = ¦ x ¦ + ¦ y ¦
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Senior Manager
Joined: 08 Jun 2006
Posts: 347
Location: Washington DC
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A
1 - Sufficient
x <> 0, y <> 0, z <> 0
¦ y + z ¦ = ¦ y ¦ + ¦ z ¦ possible only when y and z have same sign – either both positive or both negative.
The expression x (y + z) can be zero only when y + z is 0 because x can never be 0 (As xyz <> 0)
But (y + z) is not 0 because both y and z has same sign.
So x (y + z) <> 0
2 - Insufficient
Apply same logic
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Manager
Joined: 31 Aug 2006
Posts: 215
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If xyz<>0 then none of x,y and z is0.
For x(y+z) =0 , the following must be true
y=-z
Now (2) gives no relation between y and z
Hence answer has to be (A),(C) or (E)
Again from Stat(1) we get y=z, hence y!=-z
Thus (A)
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