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A long-term study of some 1,000 physicians indicates that the more cof

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24 Oct 2019, 06:31
A long-term study of some 1,000 physicians indicates that the more coffee these doctors drank, the more they had a likelihood of coronary disease.

(A) more they had a likelihood of coronary disease

(B) more was their likelihood of having coronary disease

(C) more they would have a likelihood to have coronary disease

(D) greater was their likelihood of having coronary disease

(E) greater was coronary disease likely

The word ‘likelihood’ is uncountable and it means probability. So instead of ‘more’ we have to use ‘greater’. Options A, B and C will be eliminated.

Option E distorts the meaning.
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A long-term study of some 1,000 physicians indicates that the more cof  [#permalink]

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15 Feb 2020, 06:37
1
sayantanc2k wrote:
After going through various suggestions by GMAT experts at Magoosh and Manhattan, I could arrive at the following conclusion:

The positive....comparative...superlative forms of certain adjectives of quantity are as follows:

set 1. many...more...most
set 2. much...more....most
set 3. great...greater...greatest

While set 1 (many...more...most) is used for countable nouns, set 2 (much...more....most) and set 3 (great...greater...greatest) are used for uncountable nouns.

Now there could be 2 types of uncountable nouns
type a. Quantity word / numbers themselves (e.g. price, volume, weight, probability etc.) are uncountable.
type b. Other uncountable nouns (honesty, poverty, etc as you mentioned)

The set 2 (much...more....most) is used for type b (other uncountable nouns) uncountable nouns.
The set 3 ( great...greater...greatest) is used for type a (Quantity word / numbers) uncountable nouns.

Therefore we see that "more" can be used for (i) countable nouns and (ii) uncountable nouns that are not quantity words/ numbers.
"Greater" can be used for (iii) uncountable nouns that are quantity words/ numbers.

So both option B and D are correct?
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Re: A long-term study of some 1,000 physicians indicates that the more cof  [#permalink]

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15 Apr 2020, 01:35
Sarjaria84 wrote:
daagh wrote:
Saurabh
The 'had' in the original text is not a past perfect. It is the simple past of 'have'.

Thank you daagh

So in option 'A' apart from the usage of 'more' there's nothing else wrong, right?

Thanks
Saurabh

There is another error. we are talking about the likelihood of 'having' disease, not the likelyhood of disease.
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25 May 2020, 21:27
(D) greater WAS their likelihood of having coronary disease

--- Why isn't this " greater their likelihood of having coronary disease WAS " ?

When do we use the inverted verb form? or why do we use the inverted verb form here?
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27 May 2020, 08:55
GMATNinja wrote:
SS18, if you're being really strict and literal with the meaning here, (A) and (C) are both just a little bit illogical.

In (C), the clearest issue is that the verb tense is a little bit off. "... the more coffee the doctors drank, the more they would have a likelihood to have coronary disease." One problem is "would have" -- the phrase conditional, which doesn't make much sense here. We're looking at facts of a study: "the more x occurred, the more y occurred". Since these are facts, it wouldn't make sense to say: "the more x occurred, the more y would have occurred." There's simply no need to make the second part of the phrase conditional.

In (A), it doesn't make much sense to say "the more they had a likelihood." It makes sense to talk about the degree to which something is likely to occur: "a higher likelihood" or "a greater likelihood." But this is subtly different: (A) is saying "the more they had a likelihood" -- which seems to express "likelihood" as a binary thing, that you either have or you don't -- so now (A) seems to say that the more the physicians drank, the higher the odds of having a likelihood. And that doesn't make much sense. (C) suffers from the same problem, too.

I hope this helps!

GMATNinja, can you elaborate a little more on option A. Also, if we replace "they" with "doctors" in "more they had a likelihood of coronary disease", can we say the sentence is saying that more doctors had a likelihood that is the number of doctors ?
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Re: A long-term study of some 1,000 physicians indicates that the more cof  [#permalink]

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13 Jun 2020, 07:49
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Suneha123 wrote:
GMATNinja wrote:
SS18, if you're being really strict and literal with the meaning here, (A) and (C) are both just a little bit illogical.

In (C), the clearest issue is that the verb tense is a little bit off. "... the more coffee the doctors drank, the more they would have a likelihood to have coronary disease." One problem is "would have" -- the phrase conditional, which doesn't make much sense here. We're looking at facts of a study: "the more x occurred, the more y occurred". Since these are facts, it wouldn't make sense to say: "the more x occurred, the more y would have occurred." There's simply no need to make the second part of the phrase conditional.

In (A), it doesn't make much sense to say "the more they had a likelihood." It makes sense to talk about the degree to which something is likely to occur: "a higher likelihood" or "a greater likelihood." But this is subtly different: (A) is saying "the more they had a likelihood" -- which seems to express "likelihood" as a binary thing, that you either have or you don't -- so now (A) seems to say that the more the physicians drank, the higher the odds of having a likelihood. And that doesn't make much sense. (C) suffers from the same problem, too.

I hope this helps!

GMATNinja, can you elaborate a little more on option A. Also, if we replace "they" with "doctors" in "more they had a likelihood of coronary disease", can we say the sentence is saying that more doctors had a likelihood that is the number of doctors ?

Consider the following example:

"The more you study, the more you will have a likelihood of getting a 700."

• This one doesn't quite make sense because you always have a likelihood of getting a 700.
• That likelihood might increase or decrease, but you've always had some likelihood of getting a 700 -- whether that likelihood was a 0% chance, a 100% chance, or anything in between.
• Studying doesn't increase your chances of HAVING a likelihood -- you have some likelihood regardless of how much you study.
• Instead, studying INCREASES the likelihood that you will get a 700.

We have something similar in this question. Drinking more coffee doesn't increase the chances of HAVING a likelihood. Instead, drinking more coffee increases the likelihood of having coronary disease. And that's why (D) is better than (A).

I hope that helps!
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Re: A long-term study of some 1,000 physicians indicates that the more cof  [#permalink]

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15 Jun 2020, 07:25
1
[quote="LithiumIon"]A long-term study of some 1,000 physicians indicates that the more coffee these doctors drank, the more they had a likelihood of coronary disease.

(A) more they had a likelihood of coronary disease

(B) more was their likelihood of having coronary disease

(C) more they would have a likelihood to have coronary disease

(D) greater was their likelihood of having coronary disease

(E) greater was coronary disease likely
*************************************************
more the x , greater the Y (A) (B) and (C) incorrect

(D) Correct
(E) parallelism error. drinking coffee -greater
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Re: A long-term study of some 1,000 physicians indicates that the more cof  [#permalink]

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20 Jul 2020, 21:27
(A) more they had a likelihood of coronary disease
Likelihood is uncountable, So usage of More is incorrect

(B) more was their likelihood of having coronary disease
Likelihood is uncountable, So usage of More is incorrect

(C) more they would have a likelihood to have coronary disease
Likelihood is uncountable, So usage of More is incorrect

(D) greater was their likelihood of having coronary disease
Compared to A,B,C, usage of Greater instead of More corrects the meaning

(E) greater was coronary disease likely
placement of likely doesn’t give the best sentence here
Re: A long-term study of some 1,000 physicians indicates that the more cof   [#permalink] 20 Jul 2020, 21:27

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