gmattesttaker2 wrote:
A randomly selected sample population consists of 60% women and 40% men. 90% of the women and 15% of the men are colorblind. For a certain experiment, scientists will select one person at a time until they have a colorblind subject. What is the approximate probability of selecting a colorblind person in no more than three tries?
A. 95%
B. 90%
C. 80%
D. 75%
E. 60%
If the sample population has 60% women and 40% men, and 90% of the women and 15% of the men are colorblind, then the probability that a randomly selected person is colorblind is (0.6)(0.9) + (0.4)(0.15) = 0.54 + 0.06 = 0.6. This also means that the probability that a randomly selected person is not colorblind is 0.4.
We need to determine the probability of selecting a colorblind person in no more than 3 tries.
Let’s calculate the probability for each possible scenario:
Scenario 1: A colorblind person is chosen on the first try.
P(colorblind person is chosen on the first try) = 0.6
Scenario 2: A colorblind person is chosen on the second try. (That is, a non-colorblind person is chosen on the first try.)
P(colorblind person is chosen on the second try) = 0.4 x 0.6 = 0.24
Scenario 3: A color blind person is chosen on the third try. (That is, a non-colorblind person is chosen on each of the first two tries.)
P(colorblind person is chosen on the third try) = 0.4 x 0.4 x 0.6 = 0.096
Thus, the probability of selecting a colorblind person on no more than three tries is 0.6 + 0.24 + 0.096 = 0.936 = 93.6%, which is approximately 95%.
Answer: A
Could you please explain why do we take for granted that there is going to be replacement, what I mean is shouldn't scenario 2 be 40/100x60/99 and senario 3 40/100x39/99x60/98 ?