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# An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to

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Re: An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to  [#permalink]

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19 Mar 2014, 16:19
The debate goes on! Can we have an OA/OE for this one please?

Experts advice, this is a great question!!

Cheers
J
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Re: An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to  [#permalink]

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19 Mar 2014, 19:25
Here is the OA along with OE that I got after searching

The best answer choice is the second one (we'll call it B). The argument concludes that there is a cause-and-effect relationship between listening to classical music and getting restful sleep. But this conclusion is based merely on the statistical correlation cited in the first sentence. One way to discredit the conclusion is to provide evidence that something else results in restful sleep. That’s exactly what choice (B) accomplishes, by pointing out another possible cause: bedtime reading.

The statement in the first answer choice (we'll call it A) accomplishes little, if anything, toward weakening the argument, which compares listening to music — specifically, classical music — to watching television, not to reading.

The statement in the third answer choice (we'll call it C) actually strengthens the argument by providing additional evidence that watching television before bedtime results in restless sleep.

The statement in the fourth answer choice (we'll call it D) would weaken the argument only if listening to classical music is more mentally stimulating than watching television. However, the argument provides no evidence to substantiate this crucial assumption.

The statement in the fifth answer choice (we'll call it E) is irrelevant to the argument, which seeks to compare a person’s environment just before bedtime, not during sleep.

Really good question. I too fell for C but then realized I made a basic mistake in cause-effect relation. I too agree it is B.

jlgdr wrote:
The debate goes on! Can we have an OA/OE for this one please?

Experts advice, this is a great question!!

Cheers
J
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Re: An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to  [#permalink]

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19 Mar 2014, 21:07
1
An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to take sleeping pills at bedtime than a person who enjoys listening to classical music but does not watch television as a habit. Clearly, listening to classical music just before bedtime contributes to a more restful night’s sleep, whereas watching television before bedtime has the opposite effect.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the above argument?

(A) Reading a book before bedtime contributes to restful sleep more than listening to music does.
Irrelevant as comparison is not between reading a book and listening to music.
(B) People who enjoy classical music typically like to read just before bedtime.
This cast a doubt that reading before bedtime rather than classical music contributes towards restful sleep.
(C) Sleeplessness is more common among people who watch late-night television than among people who do not.
This supports the argument rather than weakening it.
(D) Engaging in a bedtime activity that is mentally stimulating often interferes with a person’s ability to fall asleep.
This is out of scope. Mentally stimulating activity is not discussed here.
(E) A silent environment is less conducive to restful sleep than an environment with calming ambient sounds.
This is also out of scope.
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Re: An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to  [#permalink]

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06 Jul 2015, 18:13
Hello,

Bumping this old thread for review.

I to select answer choice B, you need to make an assumption that "reading is causing sleep".

What if people who listen music read books but the later activity has no impact on sleep??? and it is only the listing music which cause sleep.

Again the point is this question needs further review.

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Re: An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to  [#permalink]

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26 Oct 2016, 12:22
I feel the answer is B.

The argument shows a correlation between sleep and listening to classical music. Option A shows that there is another factor involved. It is likely that reading before bedtime causes them to sleep more peacefully.

Since OA is not provided, experts can answer.
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Re: An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to  [#permalink]

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26 Oct 2016, 12:41
warriorguy wrote:
I feel the answer is B.

The argument shows a correlation between sleep and listening to classical music. Option A shows that there is another factor involved. It is likely that reading before bedtime causes them to sleep more peacefully.

Since OA is not provided, experts can answer.

This is a NON GMAT Question...

The OA as per source is (A) as per this link

Explanation provided is -

 The argument concludes that there is a cause-and-effect relationship between listening to classical music and getting restful sleep. But this conclusion is based merely on the statistical correlation cited in the first sentence. One way to discredit the conclusion is to provide evidence that something else results in restful sleep. That’s exactly what choice (A) accomplishes, by pointing out another possible cause: bedtime reading. The correct response is (A).

Hope this helps...
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Re: An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to  [#permalink]

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27 Oct 2016, 01:34
Abhishek009 wrote:
warriorguy wrote:
I feel the answer is B.

The argument shows a correlation between sleep and listening to classical music. Option A shows that there is another factor involved. It is likely that reading before bedtime causes them to sleep more peacefully.

Since OA is not provided, experts can answer.

This is a NON GMAT Question...

The OA as per source is (A) as per this link

Explanation provided is -

 The argument concludes that there is a cause-and-effect relationship between listening to classical music and getting restful sleep. But this conclusion is based merely on the statistical correlation cited in the first sentence. One way to discredit the conclusion is to provide evidence that something else results in restful sleep. That’s exactly what choice (A) accomplishes, by pointing out another possible cause: bedtime reading. The correct response is (A).

Hope this helps...

Thanks for the source Abhishek009. Options A and B has been reversed in this question. So A on the LSAT forum is B here.
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Re: An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to  [#permalink]

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04 Jul 2017, 07:35
perhaps, the OA is incorrect, C should be the right answer.
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Re: An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to  [#permalink]

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04 Jul 2017, 07:58
vivekdixit07 wrote:
piyatiwari wrote:
I say B.

(A) Reading a book before bedtime contributes to restful sleep more than listening to music does. >> Just a fact. Neutral.

(B) People who enjoy classical music typically like to read just before bedtime. >> Correct. Though they enjoy classical music, they do not listen to it before bedtime. This shatters the conclusion.

(C) Sleeplessness is more common among people who watch late-night television than among people who do not. >> Supports the conclusion.

(D) Engaging in a bedtime activity that is mentally stimulating often interferes with a person’s ability to fall asleep. >> Supports the conclusion.

(E) A silent environment is less conducive to restful sleep than an environment with calming ambient sounds. >> Supports the conclusion.

What is the OA?
What is the source?

Here you are assuming that reading book before bedtime causes sleep. But it's no where mentioned.

I agree with the reply. Reading a book is out of scope and redundant. The conclusion mentions about activities such as watching television BEFORE bedtime causes sleeplessness. The conclusion can be refuted by mentioning that LATE NIGHT TV WATCHERS face more sleeplessness.

I go with options n C.

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An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to  [#permalink]

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04 Jul 2017, 12:50
An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to take sleeping pills at bedtime than a person who enjoys listening to classical music but does not watch television as a habit. Clearly, listening to classical music just before bedtime contributes to a more restful night’s sleep, whereas watching television before bedtime has the opposite effect.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the above argument?

(A) Reading a book before bedtime contributes to restful sleep more than listening to music does. reading is out of scope.
(B) People who enjoy classical music typically like to read just before bedtime. this choice tells that there is another factor involved and this weakens the argument by providing alternate reason.
(C) Sleeplessness is more common among people who watch late-night television than among people who do not. the sleeplessness is still there for non late show watchers
(D) Engaging in a bedtime activity that is mentally stimulating often interferes with a person’s ability to fall asleep. bedtime activity is out of scope as it does not define what is considered as a bedtime activity. weather its tv or it music or its something else like reading. also this does not weaken the conclusion of the argument in anyway.
(E) A silent environment is less conducive to restful sleep than an environment with calming ambient sounds. the calming ambient sound is out of scope and while if the classical music is considerd to be a ambient sound then this supports the argument rather than weakening it.
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Re: An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to  [#permalink]

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30 Sep 2017, 05:50
kennyd wrote:
MacFauz wrote:
None of the answer choices seem very conducive to me. However, I would choose C with great disdain :p . If the tv watchers are watching TV because of their sleeplessness then it would be unfair to say that watching tv causes sleeplessness.( Although, the wording is quite confusing)

B asks for a lot of assumption. What if reading books were an exciting activity. Maybe when I read books, I dont feel like sleeping at all. In that case, B may even be strengthening the argument by saying that even the excitation brought about by reading the book is not able to counter the soothing effect of listening to classical music.

Actually seeing, C strengthens the argument! While B weakens it.
Listening to music --> Restful sleep
B disproves this.
In C,
It gives further evidence that Watching TV before sleep, causes restless sleep.
So it has to be B.
Whats the OA?

You are right.Original answer is B
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Re: An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to  [#permalink]

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02 Nov 2018, 16:57
vmdce129907 wrote:
An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to take sleeping pills at bedtime than a person who enjoys listening to classical music but does not watch television as a habit. Clearly, listening to classical music just before bedtime contributes to a more restful night’s sleep, whereas watching television before bedtime has the opposite effect.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the above argument?

(A) Reading a book before bedtime contributes to restful sleep more than listening to music does.
(B) People who enjoy classical music typically like to read just before bedtime.
(C) Sleeplessness is more common among people who watch late-night television than among people who do not.
(D) Engaging in a bedtime activity that is mentally stimulating often interferes with a person’s ability to fall asleep.
(E) A silent environment is less conducive to restful sleep than an environment with calming ambient sounds.

Source: LSAT

I am not very convinced with the OA for this question. Please discuss

Strange question.
I answered C. I understand that there is not an ideal answer, but B I crossed out because reading is something new and we have to compare television and radio classical music.
Ofc I understand the logic of B.
Reading substitutes classical music and appears to be the cause of restful sleep. But it is a little bit overthinking.
Re: An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to   [#permalink] 02 Nov 2018, 16:57

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