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# As of this morning, none of my friends have been able to

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VP
Joined: 07 Nov 2005
Posts: 1118
Location: India
As of this morning, none of my friends have been able to [#permalink]

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18 Apr 2006, 23:18
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As of this morning, none of my friends have been able to solve the puzzle contained in last week's newspaper.

(A) none of my friends have been able to solve
(B) none of my friends was able to solve
(C) not one of my friends has yet been able to solve
(D) none of my friends has been able to solve
(E) nobody among my friends have solved

Plz explain as I am not sure of the OA.
Intern
Joined: 07 Apr 2006
Posts: 26
Location: India

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19 Apr 2006, 01:22
HI

i think D because when "none" is used for singular subject so " has"
_________________

go,get it........

Director
Joined: 06 Feb 2006
Posts: 897

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19 Apr 2006, 01:29
sumitsingh wrote:
HI

i think D because when "none" is used for singular subject so " has"

Oh yeah..... somehow missed that

Definetely... None has done..... not None have done.
Manager
Joined: 13 Dec 2005
Posts: 224
Location: Milwaukee,WI

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19 Apr 2006, 03:32
It should be D .. none is singular here... so has is reqired ...
Senior Manager
Joined: 24 Jan 2006
Posts: 252

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19 Apr 2006, 07:59
Answer is D. First sentence in Kap800
Director
Joined: 27 Feb 2006
Posts: 622

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19 Apr 2006, 13:11
^ D ^

as explained above posts, none + singular verb
VP
Joined: 07 Nov 2005
Posts: 1118
Location: India

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19 Apr 2006, 19:33
OA is D

but why can't it be A.
None can also take a plural verb, consider this example :

â€œ...none of these are said to have been a consequence of the womenâ€™s movement.â€
Intern
Joined: 16 Apr 2006
Posts: 26

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19 Apr 2006, 19:42
i went with a.

as i understand the None rule (and some, any, all, & most) (SANAM) the verb must agree with the 'of' construction.

so,
none of my friends are going.
none of my money is missing.
VP
Joined: 07 Nov 2005
Posts: 1118
Location: India

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19 Apr 2006, 20:57
Exactly thats what I thought.
One more example :
â€œ...none of the contemporary paintings are executed as skillfully as the older paintings.â€
VP
Joined: 21 Sep 2003
Posts: 1057
Location: USA

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20 Apr 2006, 00:16
rabbithole wrote:
i went with a.

as i understand the None rule (and some, any, all, & most) (SANAM) the verb must agree with the 'of' construction.

so,
none of my friends are going.
none of my money is missing.

Go Manhattan GMAT Go!
Totally agree with rabbithole.

Just to add, there are some cases where "of" construction could be missing. We shouldn't
E.g,
None but his most loyal supporters believe (not believes) his story.

So another way of deciding if it is a singular or plural construction is:
1. If NONE is used in the sense "NOT ONE PERSON/THING" --> Use Singular
2. If NONE is used in thse sense of a group of individuals/things --> Use Plural
_________________

"To dream anything that you want to dream, that is the beauty of the human mind. To do anything that you want to do, that is the strength of the human will. To trust yourself, to test your limits, that is the courage to succeed."

- Bernard Edmonds

SVP
Joined: 14 Dec 2004
Posts: 1689

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20 Apr 2006, 07:47
rabbithole wrote:
i went with a.

as i understand the None rule (and some, any, all, & most) (SANAM) the verb must agree with the 'of' construction.

so,
none of my friends are going.
none of my money is missing.

There is a slight variation for the RED above.

None of my friends are going ---> Emphasis is on more than one friend in a group.
None of my friends is going ---> Emphasis is on a single friend in a group.

Some more food here: http://dictionary.reference.com/help/fa ... e/g11.html
Director
Joined: 24 Oct 2005
Posts: 659
Location: London

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20 Apr 2006, 08:23
None of it is singular and
None of them is plural.

I cant see why you say
None of my friends is going ---> Emphasis is on a single friend in a group.

How do we know, we are refering to one friend in the group.
Can someone please explain why the OA is D?
SVP
Joined: 14 Dec 2004
Posts: 1689

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20 Apr 2006, 08:32
remgeo wrote:
But cant figure out why OA is D.

Remgeo,

1) none of my friends have been able to solve the puzzle.
2) none of my friends has been able to solve the puzzle.

The sentence is trying to say that NOBODY has solved the puzzle. In other words, "not a single person in this group" is able to solve it. Hence, "none of my friends" in the sentence is emphasizing on singular verb.
Director
Joined: 24 Oct 2005
Posts: 659
Location: London

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20 Apr 2006, 09:12
Vivek,
None always means ' not even a single'.

Does that mean None of the documents , none of my friends, none of the hikers etc.. should all be considered as singular; because they all mean - not even a single.

I think it is very difficult to make a discretion here.
GMAT Club Legend
Joined: 15 Dec 2003
Posts: 4288

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20 Apr 2006, 09:27
vivek123 wrote:
None of my friends are going ---> Emphasis is on more than one friend in a group.
None of my friends is going ---> Emphasis is on a single friend in a group.

Although this may be correct, the GMAT will not leave you with such an ambiguous choice, rest assured. Normally, when "none of X" is involved, you should definitely use a singular verb following as demonstrated by the OA of the above question.

There are a few exceptions where you really conjugate the verb depending on the nature of the prepositional phrase following.

eg. Most of X, ten percent of X, all of X, any of X, some of X.

You can read a bit more on this if you read my reply to gmataquaguy halfway through the page:
http://www.gmatclub.com/phpbb/viewtopic ... 2&start=20
_________________

Best Regards,

Paul

SVP
Joined: 14 Dec 2004
Posts: 1689

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20 Apr 2006, 09:57
Paul is right.
GMAT will not leave any ambiguity in choices.
20 Apr 2006, 09:57
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