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At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution

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At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution [#permalink]

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At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution, the most radical faction, that of Zapata and his followers, proposed a return to communal ownership of land, to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards.
(A) land, to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards
(B) land, a form of ownership of the pre-Columbians and respected by the Spaniards
(C) land, respected by the Spaniards and a pre-Columbian form of ownership
(D) land in which a pre-Columbian form of ownership was respected by the Spaniards
(E) land that had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards
[Reveal] Spoiler: OA

Last edited by vishalsuri on 12 Jun 2007, 07:06, edited 1 time in total.

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vishalsuri wrote:
153. At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution, the most radical faction, that of Zapata and his followers, proposed a return to communal ownership of land, to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards.
(A) land, to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards
(B) land, a form of ownership of the pre-Columbians and respected by the Spaniards
(C) land, respected by the Spaniards and a pre-Columbian form of ownership
(D) land in which a pre-Columbian form of ownership was respected by the Spaniards
(E) land that had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards

I marked B and got it wrong.


I felt this question was incredibly hard. It took me 10 minutes to figure this one out (and another 10 minutes to type this out) :lol: . I was not satisfied with the reasoning from previous posts in regard to this question. Here is my reasoning:

153. At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution, the most radical faction, that of Zapata and his followers, proposed a return to communal ownership of land, to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards.
(A) land, to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards
correct. past perfect tense correctly used. had been....respected. The ownership occured before the Spaniards respected it.

(B) land, a form of ownership of the pre-Columbians and respected by the Spaniards
incorrectly uses precolumbian as a noun. In the stem it was used as an adjective to modify ownership.

(C) land, respected by the Spaniards and a pre-Columbian form of ownership
This distorts the meaning of the sentence in that the pre-columbian form of ownership still exists. Zapata and his followers wanted to RETURN to what had been this form of ownership.

(D) land in which a pre-Columbian form of ownership was respected by the Spaniards
in which incorrectly restricts land rather than the ownership of land.
Example: I have ownership of land that stretches as far as the eye can see.


(E) land that had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards
same error as D.

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Re: SC - Mexican agrarian revolution [#permalink]

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New post 01 Apr 2010, 07:36
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It took me a very long time to understand the sentence...

I will try explaining the reason between A and E.

If we break the sentence in parts....

At the time of the ........, the most radical faction,...., proposed a return to communal ownership of....., to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by Spaniards

In E, the sentence reads

At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution, the most radical faction,...., proposed a return to communal ownership of land, that had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards. ==> In this sentence the word "that" seems to be modifying "land" which is not the intent of the sentence.

The sentence says....

The proposal is to return to communal ownership to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership

153. At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution, the most radical faction, that of Zapata and his followers, proposed a return to communal ownership of land, to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards.

(A) land, to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards
(B) land, a form of ownership of the pre-Columbians and respected by the Spaniards - awkward
(C) land, respected by the Spaniards and a pre-Columbian form of ownership - awkward
(D) land in which a pre-Columbian form of ownership was respected by the Spaniards
(E) land that had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards

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Re: SC-Mexican agrarian revolution [#permalink]

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At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution, the most radical faction, that of Zapata and his followers, proposed a return to communal ownership of land, to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards.

Ok I will try. Others, let me know if I am wrong.

I picked A mainly because all other options change the meaning of the sentence. According to the initial sentence, Zapata and his followers proposed return to communal ownership of land which was to REPLACE the then used pre-Columbian form respected by Spaniards.

So communal ownership is a different form than the one being practiced then i.e pre-Columbian form.

"to what had been" is what conveys this.

Apart from option A, all other sentences alter the meaning.
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Re: SC-Mexican agrarian revolution [#permalink]

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New post 05 Oct 2010, 07:39
Original SC:
At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution, the most radical faction, that of Zapata and his followers, proposed a return to communal ownership of land, to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards.

Let us simplify it :
At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution, the most radical faction, proposed a return to X, to what had been Y.

Meaning:
The radical faction proposed to replace Y with X.
Type of ownership during the Agarian revolution - Y
What type of ownership did the radical faction want ? - X
They wanted to move to X by replacing Y with X.


This is actually a modifier and IIlism type SC.

Modifier because "to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards" modifies "communal ownership of land"

IIlism because -
return to X, to what had been Y.

At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution, the most radical faction, that of Zapata and his followers, proposed a return to communal ownership of land, to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards.
A. land, to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards
>>>Correct

B. land, a form of ownership of the pre-Columbians and respected by the Spaniards
>>> Changes the meaning of the SC. It means the radical faction wants to move to "communal ownership of land" which was respected by spaniards. Wrong
Another flaw - Pre-columbians used "communal ownership of land". This is out of scope. The scope of the SC is limited to the radical faction vs Spaniards and Communcal ownership vs pre-Columbian form of ownership

C. land, respected by the Spaniards and a pre-Columbian form of ownership
>>>Changes the meaning of the SC. It means the spaniards respected "communal ownership of land" . Wrong

D. land in which a pre-Columbian form of ownership was respected by the Spaniards
>>> Changes the meaning of the SC.
It looks like the SC is trying to say " pre-Columbian form of ownership" is a subset of "Communal ownership"

E. land that had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards

>>> Changes the meaning of the SC.
It looks like the SC is trying to say "Communal ownership" was " pre-Columbian form of ownership"

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Re: SC - Mexican agrarian revolution [#permalink]

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New post 23 Jun 2012, 11:44
Hi,

I still don't understand why B is wrong ?


At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution, the most radical faction, that of Zapata and his followers, proposed a return to communal ownership of land, to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards.

Option B says

At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution, the most radical faction, that of Zapata and his followers, proposed a return to communal ownership of
land
,a form of ownership of the pre-Columbians and respected by the Spaniards

The portion in brown clearly refers to (the communal ownership of land ), a noun........so why is this wrong ?

Please explain..........
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Re: 700 SC [#permalink]

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THis is a curve ball.

In past a radical faction proposed a return to communal ownership, which used to be pre-Columbian form of ownership in futher past.
So I hope that we all see the timeline issue - Past and past perfect.

This leaves us with A and E.


153. At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution, the most radical faction, that of Zapata and his followers, proposed a return to communal ownership of land, to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards.
(A) land, to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards
Perfect.

(E) land that had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards
It sounds as if the land itself was pre Columbian form of ownership - so incorrect.

Let me rewrite the E again.
In past, a radical faction proposed a return to communal ownership of land that had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards
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Re: At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution [#permalink]

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vishalsuri wrote:
At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution, the most radical faction, that of Zapata and his followers, proposed a return to communal ownership of land, to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards.
(A) land, to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards
(B) land, a form of ownership of the pre-Columbians and respected by the Spaniards
(C) land, respected by the Spaniards and a pre-Columbian form of ownership
(D) land in which a pre-Columbian form of ownership was respected by the Spaniards
(E) land that had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards


ANALYZE THE QUESTION:

"Propose X to Y" is correct idiom in which X and Y should match.

The non-underlined part says: ....proposed a return to communal ownership of land......... Can you propose "a return" to "a communal ownership"? No, because "a return" and "communal ownership" do not match in meaning. Thus, "a return to communal ownership of land" is only a NOUN PHRASE.

The intended meaning is: the faction of Zapata and his followers proposed [a return to communal ownership of land], to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards.

Note: there is no problem with the comma before "to". A comma may be used to separate two elements in a sentence. (Please refer to Manhattan Gmat sentence correction - page 195).

ANALYZE EACH ANSWER:

(A) land, to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards
Correct. As stated above.

(B) land, a form of ownership of the pre-Columbians and respected by the Spaniards
Wrong.
- "a form of ownership of...." is the appositive modifier which modifies "communal ownership of land". Actually, you're comparing "a return" with "communal ownership of land". Does that make sense? No. As analyzed above, "a return" and "communal ownership of land" do not match each other.
- Change intended meaning: what Zapata and his followers want is "the change to what had been....", not "a communal ownership of land".

(C) land, respected by the Spaniards and a pre-Columbian form of ownership
Wrong.
- "respected by...." is Verb-ed modifier which modifies preceding noun phrase "communal ownership of land" ==> You repeat the same error in B. You're comparing "a return" with "communal ownership of land". Does not make sense.
- Change meaning: as in B.

(D) land in which a pre-Columbian form of ownership was respected by the Spaniards
Wrong.
- Same as B and C. "in which....." modifies "communal ownership of land" ==> You're comparing "a return" with "communal ownership of land". Does not make sense.
- Change meaning: as in B and C.

(E) land that had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards
Wrong.
- Because of preposition "of" (ownership of land), so that may modify "communal ownership of land". You repeat the same error in B, C, D. You're comparing "a return" with "communal ownership of land". Does not make sense.
- Change meaning: as in B, C, and D.

Hope it helps.
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Re: *700* At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution [#permalink]

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New post 06 Aug 2015, 13:30
souvik101990 wrote:
At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution, the most radical faction, that of Zapata and his followers, proposed a return to communal ownership of land, to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards.

A. land, to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards

B. land, a form of ownership of the pre-Columbians and respected by the Spaniards

C. land, respected by the Spaniards and a pre-Columbian form of ownership

D. land in which a pre-Columbian form of ownership was respected by the Spaniards

E. land that had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards


A) correct
B) not parallel: form and respected
C) not parallel: respected and form
D) in which modifies land so we get: land in which a pre-Columbian form of ownership was respected weird meaning and change of meaning

But I can't get what wrong with E:
that modifies communal ownership of land so we get
communal ownership of land that had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership

Can somebody, please, explain what wrong with this form of sentence?
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*700* At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution [#permalink]

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New post 06 Aug 2015, 21:15
Harley1980 wrote:
souvik101990 wrote:
At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution, the most radical faction, that of Zapata and his followers, proposed a return to communal ownership of land, to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards.

A. land, to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards

B. land, a form of ownership of the pre-Columbians and respected by the Spaniards

C. land, respected by the Spaniards and a pre-Columbian form of ownership

D. land in which a pre-Columbian form of ownership was respected by the Spaniards

E. land that had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards


A) correct
B) not parallel: form and respected
C) not parallel: respected and form
D) in which modifies land so we get: land in which a pre-Columbian form of ownership was respected weird meaning and change of meaning

But I can't get what wrong with E:
that modifies communal ownership of land so we get
communal ownership of land that had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership

Can somebody, please, explain what wrong with this form of sentence?




A. land, to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards
vs.
E. land that had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards


I believe that (E) is incorrect because the meaning is slightly askew. (E) states that Zapata and his followers proposed a return to communal ownership of land that is specifically the type of communal ownership from the pre-Columbian times that were respected by the Spaniards.

E. land [b]that had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards[/b] - bolded part is essential to the meaning of communal ownership of land.



Whereas, (A) states the info about pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards as an added, but unnecessary info, as an aside. Thereby, the communal ownership that's proposed may be a modern version, which is similar to the fundamental economic philosophy of communal ownership of pre-Columbian times.

A. land, to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards - bolded part is non-essential to the meaning of communal ownership of land.

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Re: #Top150 SC: At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution [#permalink]

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New post 20 Dec 2015, 06:04
souvik101990 wrote:
At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution, the most radical faction, that of Zapata and his followers, proposed a return to communal ownership of land, to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards.

A. land, to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards

B. land, a form of ownership of the pre-Columbians and respected by the Spaniards

C. land, respected by the Spaniards and a pre-Columbian form of ownership

D. land in which a pre-Columbian form of ownership was respected by the Spaniards

E. land that had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards


lets first eliminate the straight wrong choices...
1)
D. land in which a pre-Columbian form of ownership was respected by the Spaniards
E. land that had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards

both the choices wrongly modify land in the second clause where form of ownership is to be modified..

2)
C. land, respected by the Spaniards and a pre-Columbian form of ownership..
changes the meaning .. what is being respected by the spaniards..

3) in the remaining two, B is better constructed but changes the meaning by use of 'and'.....
in the original, spaniards respect a pre-Columbian form of ownership but B has made the two parts parallel..

the answer is A, although the construction is slightly complicated
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Re: #Top150 SC: At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution [#permalink]

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New post 20 Dec 2015, 07:40
aditya8062 wrote:
Quote:
3) in the remaining two, B is better constructed but changes the meaning by use of 'and'.....
in the original, spaniards respect a pre-Columbian form of ownership but B has made the two parts parallel..


here the problem is not change of meaning. in fact the parallelism in B is effectively saying what A is saying

B says: a form of ownership of the pre-Columbians and respected by the Spaniards
------>the parallelism is BETWEEN 2 ADJECTIVE and both are modifying "a form of ownership"
in A "RESPECTED" is again modifying "a form of ownership"

so what is the real problem in B? ----> the phrasing "ownership of the pre-Columbians" is giving a VERY DIFFERENT meaning


Hi,
there is a change in meaning and you are wrong when you say that..
here the problem is not change of meaning. in fact the parallelism in B is effectively saying what A is saying ..

let me tackle each sentence separately..
1)At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution, the most radical faction, that of Zapata and his followers, proposed a return to communal ownership of land, to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards...
what was respected by the spainards.. it is "pre-Columbian form of ownership''.. it is not "the communal ownership of land"

2)At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution, the most radical faction, that of Zapata and his followers, proposed a return to communal ownership of land, a form of ownership of the pre-Columbians and respected by the Spaniards...
here ofcourse it changes the meaning by bringing in parallelism... now the respect is not for pre columbian form of ownership but for a form of ownership...

There is a difference in "a pre-Columbian form of ownership" and "a form of ownership of the pre-Columbians ", which could translate into a form of the pre-Columbians ownership...
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At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution [#permalink]

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At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution, the most radical faction, that of Zapata and his followers, proposed a return to communal ownership of land, to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards.

(A) land, to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards ---
(B) land, a form of ownership of the pre-Columbians and respected by the Spaniards
(C) land, respected by the Spaniards and a pre-Columbian form of ownership
(D) land in which a pre-Columbian form of ownership was respected by the Spaniards
(E) land that had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards

POE: Grammar first. B and C are out for faulty parallelism. E is out because of the touch rule of the restrictive pronoun ‘that’, which cannot but modify anything but the land.

Logic: D is out because the communal owners itself was a form of ownership and not one in which another pre-Columbian form of ownership existed. This is a logical error.

A remains although the repetition of ‘to’ might unnerve sometimes. But considering that all others have more serious flaws, A can be safely construed as the best fit.

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Re: #Top150 SC: At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution [#permalink]

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New post 20 Dec 2015, 18:31
Quote:
Hi,
there is a change in meaning and you are wrong when you say that..
here the problem is not change of meaning. in fact the parallelism in B is effectively saying what A is saying ..

let me tackle each sentence separately..
1)At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution, the most radical faction, that of Zapata and his followers, proposed a return to communal ownership of land, to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards...
what was respected by the spainards.. it is "pre-Columbian form of ownership''.. it is not "the communal ownership of land"

2)At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution, the most radical faction, that of Zapata and his followers, proposed a return to communal ownership of land, a form of ownership of the pre-Columbians and respected by the Spaniards...
here ofcourse it changes the meaning by bringing in parallelism... now the respect is not for pre columbian form of ownership but for a form of ownership...

There is a difference in "a pre-Columbian form of ownership" and "a form of ownership of the pre-Columbians ", which could translate into a form of the pre-Columbians ownership...


hi
what i meant was that "a form of ownership of the pre-Columbians" is WRONG
it is giving a meaning that the "ownership" itself is OF pre-columbians
and as for that parallelism : the adjectives can be parallel . for instance :a red house liked by all versus a house that is RED and that is liked by all ---->there is NO REASON to accept one and reject other !!
ALSO had B been :a form of ownership of the pre-Columbian style and respected by the Spaniards---->would have been ok
please note that "PREPOSITIONAL PHRASE" AND "ED VERBS" are effectively acting as ADJECTIVES

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#Top150 SC: At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution [#permalink]

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New post 20 Dec 2015, 19:45
Quote:
I don't think E is wrong. "that" modifies the complex noun phrase "ownership of land". so it looks all right here.
What is the source of this question?


Right !!
in fact "THAT" is a beautiful word and it has a capacity to refer to FAR FLUNG nouns (this has been told by RON many times) .in fact if you are eliminating E for that reason then u might land up eliminating many good choices in official questions .for instance have a look at OG #12 diagnostic 50 SC question
the problem with E is the usage of "HAD BEEN" in the same sentence .we do not need any sequencing in this question as there is no doubt that "PROPOSING" IS INDEED A LATER EVENT (check the usage of RETURN in option A)

NOW why "HAD BEEN" is NOT a problem in option A ? because NOW IT IS being used in a MODIFIER
ALSO NOTE that "to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards" IS an APPOSITION (a noun modifier) modifying "communal ownership of land" ----->ALSO NOTE that here also i did not eliminate A just because the APPOSITION is NOT touching directly the noun it is modifying ( if i were to apply "noun modifiers" rule then i would have eliminated option A as well something very similar to "THAT" modifier rule !!)

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Re: At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution, the most [#permalink]

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New post 14 Aug 2016, 20:55
At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution, the most radical faction, that of Zapata and his followers, proposed a return to communal ownership of land, to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards.

(A) land, to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards
(B) land, a form of ownership of the pre-Columbians and respected by the Spaniards :- "A form of ownrship of pre-columbian" different meaning - " A pre-columbian form of ownership"
(C) land, respected by the Spaniards and a pre-Columbian form of ownership : Not parralel
(D) land in which a pre-Columbian form of ownership was respected by the Spaniards : Meaning is

communal ownership of land is a kind of "a pre-Columbian form of ownership" and that form of ownership respected by Spaniards.
(E) land that had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards

That modifies immediately preceding noun, in this case land.

I am not able to wrap my head around

proposed a return to communal ownership of land, to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards.

it's like to __, to__

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Re: *700* At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution [#permalink]

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New post 09 Sep 2016, 19:53
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ynk wrote:
Can anyone please explain why 'E' is wrong here ?


At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution, the most radical faction, that of Zapata and his followers, proposed a return to communal ownership of land, to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards.

B,C and D can eliminated easily.

A. land, to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards
vs.
E. land that had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership respected by the Spaniards

option A and E are both grammatically correct, however there is slight difference in intended meaning between A and E

A. says zapata and his followers proposed a communal ownership of land, and the concept of such ownership was pre-columbian and was respected by spaniards
E says zapata and his followers proposed a communal ownership of land, and this land specifically had pre-columbian form of ownership which was respected by spaniards

since we want to stay as close as possible to original question A would be better answer.

I hope this helps
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Re: At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution, the most [#permalink]

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New post 16 Sep 2016, 04:23
There are two ways to look at this problem.. I am confused abt which one is correct.

1) Since the sentence talks about the event happened in past along with the return of a particular thing, it encourages to select option using had(past participle).

2) On the other hand option B introduces a noun modifier, which explains the type of land ownership and seems grammatically correct.

Can any one help me with this.?

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Re: At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution, the most [#permalink]

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New post 24 Mar 2017, 04:05
I choose A as the best option. I admit, both A & E were close.
E: That refers to land, therefore changes the meaning.

sayantanc2k : With regards to the usage of "to" twice - In option A, does "to what had been a pre-Columbian form of ownership" modify the preceeding clause? To me its usage seems similar to a Noun + Noun modifier, for instance can we replace option A with :
land, a practice respected by the Spaniards

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Re: At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution, the most [#permalink]

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New post 26 Mar 2017, 02:41
sayantanc2k wrote:
AR15J wrote:
Hi expert,

Why choice A is preferred over choice B?


B has a parallelism issue: an appositive modifier ("a form of ownership of the pre-Columbians") is made parallel to a past participle modifier ("respected by the Spaniards").



a form of ownership of the pre-Columbians and respected by the Spaniards


Can we not interpret it as--


a form of ownership
modifier --of the pre-Columbians
and
modifier-- respected by the Spaniards

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Re: At the time of the Mexican agrarian revolution, the most   [#permalink] 26 Mar 2017, 02:41

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