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Manager
Status: struggling with GMAT
Joined: 06 Dec 2012
Posts: 200

Kudos [?]: 448 [2], given: 46

Concentration: Accounting
GMAT Date: 04-06-2013
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03 Mar 2013, 16:02
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Question Stats:

63% (01:03) correct 37% (01:05) wrong based on 379 sessions

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Because he had not experienced any symptoms until adulthood and was affected by facial paralysis early on in the course of his illness, Franklin Delano Roosevelt, whose death was originally attributed to complications arising from polio, may actually have suffered from symptoms related to Guillain-Barre syndrome.

(A)Because he had not experienced any symptoms until adulthood and was affected by facial paralysis early on in the course of his illness
(B)Since he has experienced his symptoms in adulthood and has been affected by facial paralysis early on in the course of his illness
(C)Early on in the course of his illness he experienced facial paralysis and having not experienced any symptoms until adulthood
(D)Because he had not experienced any symptoms until adulthood, he had been affected by facial paralysis early on in the course of his illness
(E)Since he did not experience any symptoms until adulthood and had been affected by facial paralysis early on in the course of his illness

Need explanation .....

Why E is wrong
[Reveal] Spoiler: OA

Kudos [?]: 448 [2], given: 46

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04 Mar 2013, 03:58
Please underline always the portion of the question.

Thanks
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04 Mar 2013, 09:52
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The problem with E is twofold. The major one is the shift of the time marker of the verb tense. Actually the lack of symptom is the earlier one and hence has to be described in past perfect as - had not experienced-. The second symptom, namely the facial paralysis, was set on much later in the early stages of the actual disease, much after his adulthood, and hence we need to use a simple past tense.
The second minor problem as I see, is the use of - since - to mean because, which is not desirable according to GMAT. So E is inferior.
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Can you solve at least some SC questions without delving into the initial statement?

Narendran 98845 44509

Kudos [?]: 8158 [0], given: 364

Manager
Status: struggling with GMAT
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Kudos [?]: 448 [0], given: 46

Concentration: Accounting
GMAT Date: 04-06-2013
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04 Mar 2013, 15:43
daagh wrote:
The problem with E is twofold. The major one is the shift of the time marker of the verb tense. Actually the lack of symptom is the earlier one and hence has to be described in past perfect as - had not experienced-. The second symptom, namely the facial paralysis, was set on much later in the early stages of the actual disease, much after his adulthood, and hence we need to use a simple past tense.
The second minor problem as I see, is the use of - since - to mean because, which is not desirable according to GMAT. So E is inferior.

Hi daag
plz explain every options verb tense problem................

Kudos [?]: 448 [0], given: 46

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04 Mar 2013, 20:38
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(A)Because he had not experienced any symptoms until adulthood and was affected by facial paralysis early on in the course of his illness ---- The correct choice

(B)Since he has experienced his symptoms in adulthood and has been affected by facial paralysis early on in the course of his illness--- Roosevelt is no more. We cannot use present perfect tense

(C)Early on in the course of his illness he experienced facial paralysis and having not experienced any symptoms until adulthood—the problem may be with meaning. There is no causal connection between the lack of symptoms until adulthood and correlating this fact with the GBS symptoms, with a proper connector such as because.

(D)Because he had not experienced any symptoms until adulthood, he had been affected by facial paralysis early on in the course of his illness---This gives a wrong picture that because of lack of earlier symptoms, he experienced the later problems.

(E)Since he did not experience any symptoms until adulthood and had been affected by facial paralysis early on in the course of his illness --- as already explained.
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Narendran 98845 44509

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15 Jun 2014, 12:07
Hello from the GMAT Club VerbalBot!

Thanks to another GMAT Club member, I have just discovered this valuable topic, yet it had no discussion for over a year. I am now bumping it up - doing my job. I think you may find it valuable (esp those replies with Kudos).

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Concentration: Human Resources, Healthcare
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28 Jul 2015, 10:58
I think people are getting confused here about the basic meaning of the sentence:

Eliminating B and D on the basis of tense. Has not/ had been/had been

We are left with A, C, E

Check A first:
if one can't understand the meaning, test the timeline:
Past perfect----->Past------>Present
He had not experienced any symptoms till adulthood (From birth till adulthood)----->He was facing facial paralysis (which according to passage suggests is a symptom of GBS and not complications of Polio)----->Diagonis may be wrong (suggestion in present)

C's timeline
Early on he experienced problems and having not experienced...hhmmmmmmm....
----> He had facial paralysis and also did not have any symptoms (Overlap of timeline....because past and present perfect continuous suggests continuation till present) -- > Total confusion here!

E's timeline
He did not face symptoms but had facial paralysis
Its like the best contradiction ever!
How can a person not face any symptom but have facial paralysis?
E negated.

Left with A
So OA is A

Hope this helps!

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22 Oct 2017, 09:02
Hello from the GMAT Club VerbalBot!

Thanks to another GMAT Club member, I have just discovered this valuable topic, yet it had no discussion for over a year. I am now bumping it up - doing my job. I think you may find it valuable (esp those replies with Kudos).

Want to see all other topics I dig out? Follow me (click follow button on profile). You will receive a summary of all topics I bump in your profile area as well as via email.

Kudos [?]: 270 [0], given: 0

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