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Before its independence in 1947, Britain ruled India as a co

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Re: Before its independence in 1947, Britain ruled India as a co  [#permalink]

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New post 19 Oct 2015, 05:42
pr31 wrote:
garimavyas wrote:
i too narrowed down to D and E, why is WHO > WHICH ?


E is favored for the main part of the sentence.... but this doubt of Who v/s which is creating a niggling doubt.... Is it a trick or am i missing something... ?


See the posts above for the issues with D - they are related to meaning and don't have anything to do with 'which'. On this question both who and which are used correctly therefore one is not greater than another.

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Re: Before its independence in 1947, Britain ruled India as a co  [#permalink]

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New post 16 Dec 2015, 21:51
Who - in this case refers to "British" (British colony, French Colony , German colony etc)
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Re: Before its independence in 1947, Britain ruled India as a co  [#permalink]

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New post 20 Dec 2015, 20:16
i believe there is a slight difference in meaning between D and E.
E states that India was a colony, while D states that it was ruled as a colony.
since original sentence favors "ruled as a colony", E thus must be incorrect, as it changes the meaning. Being ruled as a colony does not mean that you ARE a colony, subtle but important detail.
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Re: SC Revision: Before its independence in 1947 Britain ruled India as a  [#permalink]

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New post 14 Apr 2017, 21:22
As no expert has highlighted this, I would like to know, is the use of "which" in option D correct?

I believe we use "which" for things. That was the main reason I chose E with "who". Please clear this.
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Re: Revision Project: Before its independence in 1947  [#permalink]

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New post 21 Apr 2017, 21:44
Hello expert, i got the answer but i have one query

In gmat questions, i have never seen usage of "had been", am i wrong in generalizing the concept that options with had been will be wrong.
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Re: Revision Project: Before its independence in 1947  [#permalink]

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New post 22 Apr 2017, 04:19
VKat wrote:
Hello expert, i got the answer but i have one query

In gmat questions, i have never seen usage of "had been", am i wrong in generalizing the concept that options with had been will be wrong.


Yes, this generalization is wrong - "had been" is the past perfect of the verb "to be".
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Before its independence in 1947, Britain ruled India as a co  [#permalink]

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New post 15 Sep 2017, 07:35

OFFICIAL EXPLANATION:



The original sentence begins with a modifier ("Before its independence") that clearly describes India, though the subject of the main clause is Britain. Moreover, "ruled India as a colony" is wordy and the verb "ruled" is in the simple past when it would be better in the past perfect (two past actions, one of which was earlier). Finally, "they" has no grammatical antecedent and "would" is not a proper tense here (the simple past is required).

(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.

(B) Britain should not be the recipient of the modifier "Before its independence."

(C) The pronoun "they" has no logical antecedent. Logically it probably refers to the British, but the British do not appear in the sentence. Also, the past perfect tense would have been preferable here (had been ruled) since the ruling occurred before the relinquishing of the power.

(D) The phrase "ruled as a colony by Britain" is awkward and unclear. The placement of the modifier "by Britain" makes it unclear that the ruling is being done by Britain.

(E) CORRECT. This correctly places India as the recipient of the opening modifier. The past perfect is utilized to indicate that different times in the past. Notice that the word "ruled" has been removed from this answer choice, however, this did not result in a change of meaning. To be a colony of the British is to be ruled by the British. The exclusion of the pronoun its in the beginning of the sentence (see answer choices A and C) is incidental. The sentence would have been correct with the pronoun its as well.
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Re: Before its independence in 1947, Britain ruled India as a co  [#permalink]

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New post 26 May 2019, 21:18
I read the explaination regarding choice D and Choice E. However I am still not clear. Below is my analysis of the choices.


(D) Before independence in 1947, India had been ruled as a colony by Britain, which relinquished power
I thought this answer is correct and the reason for the same is the modifer is used correctly and the pronoun which refers to the noun Britain ( And I thought this use of pronoun is correct here)
I am not able to understand what is wrong with the phrase India had been ruled as a colony by Britain. And I also read in the GMAT Sentence correction guide that passive construction is allowed. And to me this choice doesnot sound awkward or wordy I feel that it brings out the intended meaning clearly.


(E) Before independence in 1947, India had been a colony of the British, who relinquished power
Modifier used correctly.
who correctly refers to British ( who is used for the people)
I did not choose this option because I thought the meaning is compromised here. And I thought that India had been a colony of British is quite different from India had been ruled as a colony by British.
May be India is a colony of British.

I am not able to understand please guide.
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Re: Before its independence in 1947, Britain ruled India as a co  [#permalink]

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New post 18 Aug 2019, 12:00
KyleWiddison wrote:
vietmoi999 wrote:
why D is wrong?. I think "which" in D is correct.

if we can not explain why D is wrong, we have to accept that D is correct and this question is not good.


I agree with your statement...we need to find ways to eliminate the incorrect answers. Let's talk about D. As was stated, the wording "ruled as a colony by Britain" is indirect/wordy language that the GMAT does not like. Additionally, using that wording creates a potential meaning where India isn't even a colony, just that is was ruled as if it were a colony. Choice E clearly states that India was actually a British colony. Back to meaning issues with choice D, you could also interpret from that wording that India was a colony "next to" Britain.

KW

Hey Kyle, silly but nevertheless a doubt. I don't really understand how D changes the meaning of India to a colony 'next' to Britain.
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Re: Before its independence in 1947, Britain ruled India as a co   [#permalink] 18 Aug 2019, 12:00

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