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Re: Before the early eighteenth century, forms of communication among the [#permalink]
I disagree with #3 answer.
Here is why: "Within only a few years, the mixture of French Sign Language with Home Sign had reached equilibrium and was taught in other institutions for the deaf as American Sign Language." Reaching equilibrium doesn't constitute that it was equally important. For instance, French SL could have influenced it 90% and Home sign influenced it 10%, an equilibrium would still be reach - though both are not equally important.

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Re: Before the early eighteenth century, forms of communication among the [#permalink]
junwlee wrote:
I disagree with #3 answer.
Here is why: "Within only a few years, the mixture of French Sign Language with Home Sign had reached equilibrium and was taught in other institutions for the deaf as American Sign Language." Reaching equilibrium doesn't constitute that it was equally important. For instance, French SL could have influenced it 90% and Home sign influenced it 10%, an equilibrium would still be reach - though both are not equally important.

Please comment.


Answer 3 is not concise but is most appropriate among the answer choices
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Re: Before the early eighteenth century, forms of communication among the [#permalink]
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For #3, we're looking for something the author would "most likely agree with"--it doesn't haven't to be 100% provable. Reaching equilibrium implies that both languages were an equal part of the mix. While it's certainly possible that they weren't equal in importance, just usage, the answer choice is certainly supported.

Note that A & E make unsupported claims about "alternative history"--X would not have happened without Y. These are very hard to prove! Similarly, (D) uses the extreme word "inevitable." Again, it's hard to prove that something couldn't not have happened. (C) might seem to make sense, but we don't know that ASL was an improvement over French Sign Language--it was just an American version. I'm guessing French folks would still prefer their version!
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Re: Before the early eighteenth century, forms of communication among the [#permalink]
in Q2 : the answer choice has phrase " though not accurate" { D) This perspective, though not completely accurate, was nearer the understanding that sign language is a valid system of language.}

please can anyone explain as to how did we infer that it wasnt accurate ! DmitryFarber Bunuel
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Re: Before the early eighteenth century, forms of communication among the [#permalink]
AdityaHongunti wrote:
in Q2 : the answer choice has phrase " though not accurate" { D) This perspective, though not completely accurate, was nearer the understanding that sign language is a valid system of language.}

please can anyone explain as to how did we infer that it wasnt accurate !


The first sentence says: "Before the early eighteenth century, forms of communication among the deaf were often not regarded as authentic language." It then lists two interpretations in the bolded sentence, including the one referred to in Q2. And then it says: "Once it was recognized, however, that forms of signing constituted valid, though non-oral, systems of language, sign systems were standardized and disseminated in educational programs for the deaf." From this we can infer that both interpretations in the bolded sentence were at least partially inaccurate, and a much better interpretation appeared after that.
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Re: Before the early eighteenth century, forms of communication among the [#permalink]
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Re: Before the early eighteenth century, forms of communication among the [#permalink]
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