PriyankaGmatIMD
https://gmatclub.com/forum/how-many-int ... 48808.html
here 9*8*7*1/2 is understood and here we avoided 0 in thousands place
then we multiplied 4!/2! that is also understood
But when we multiply 4!/2! and if the number is 1104
Then the shuffle will also give me 0114
Stuck here
can someone help
Removal of duplicate cases seems quite cumbersome here. I have an alternate.
Case - 1 : Assume the first digit is equal to some other digit.
Possibilities for the first digit = 9
Choosing 1 out of the remaining 3 digits to be equal to the first = 3C1 = 3
Possibilities for the other two digits = 9 * 8 [Zero is allowed. One of the ten digits has already been taken up]
Total possibilities = 9 * 3 * 9 * 8 = 1944
Case - 2 : Assume first digit is unique.
Possibilities for the first digit = 9 [Cant be zero]
Choosing two equal digits among the remaining 3 digits = 3C2 = 3
Possibilities for assigning a number to these two digits = 9 (First digit is unique but a zero is allowed here)
Possibilities for the Fourth digit (or the second unique digit) = 8
Total = 9 * 3 * 9 * 8 = 1944
Total Cases = Case 1 + Case 2 = 1944 + 1944 = 3888